[b-greek] Epi in Mark 2:26

From: Christopher A Robinson (jinxcar@juno.com)
Date: Thu Aug 23 2001 - 17:08:57 EDT


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<DIV>Dear all,</DIV>
<DIV>&nbsp;</DIV>
<DIV><SPAN
style="FONT-SIZE: 10pt; FONT-FAMILY: 'Times New Roman'; mso-fareast-font-family: 'Times New Roman'; mso-ansi-language: EN-US; mso-fareast-language: EN-US; mso-bidi-language: AR-SA">I
have been discussing with someone why I think that the&nbsp;explanation that
Mark 2:26 could be read as "in the time of Abiathar" is incorrect. It does not
seem to me that the Greek supports this interpretation. It is true that the
preposition "epi" could be read as "in the days of." However, isn't this only
the case if there is the genitive form of the definite article in the passage?
Without the genitive definite article, doesn't it read "At the time Abiathar was
high priest"?</SPAN></DIV>
<DIV><SPAN
style="FONT-SIZE: 10pt; FONT-FAMILY: 'Times New Roman'; mso-fareast-font-family: 'Times New Roman'; mso-ansi-language: EN-US; mso-fareast-language: EN-US; mso-bidi-language: AR-SA"></SPAN>&nbsp;</DIV>
<DIV>Christopher Robinson<BR>University of Alabama-Birmingham<BR><A
href="http://www.geocities.com/jinxcar">www.geocities.com/jinxcar</A><BR></DIV>
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