[b-greek] Re: James 1:5

From: Jim West (jwest@highland.net)
Date: Mon Sep 03 2001 - 19:44:43 EDT


At 06:27 PM 9/3/01 -0500, you wrote:
>Thanks to all who responded to my question concerning James 1:3. If it would
>not be too much to ask another question, this time concerning word order in
>James 1:5...
>
>AITEITW PARA TOU DIDONTOS QEOU PASIN hAPLWS KAI OUK ONEIDIZONTOS
>
>I would have expected TOU DIDONTOS to follow QEOU. Is there any significance
>to its location? And am I correct that it seems a bit awkward?

if james is a semitic lad, which i think he was, he would have been thinking
in aramaic and writing in greek. in aramaic, as in hebrew, one always puts
the most important information at the beginning of the sentence.

best,

jim

++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++

Jim West, ThD

Adjunct Professor of Biblical Studies, Roane State Community College

Home Page:
Biblical Studies Resources
http://web.infoave.net/~jwest


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