[b-greek] Re: Galatians 2:1

From: Iver Larsen (iver_larsen@sil.org)
Date: Mon Nov 19 2001 - 02:12:47 EST


> It makes good sense that Paul would use DIA + genitive rather than
> META + accusative, since Paul is going to great pains in the context to
> maintain his independence from the Jerusalem apostles. DIA + genitive
> makes plain he was not in Jerusalem throughout the whole span of
> fourteen years, whereas META + accusative would not necessarily indicate
> that he had not been there at some preceding point during the fourteen
> years. In the case of 1.18, he can use META + accusative since he has
> already made plain in v. 17 what he DIDN'T do.
> ----------------------
>
> Steven Lo Vullo
> Madison, WI

Well, Steven, I think you are reading more into a grammatical distinction
that it can bear. According to Acts 11:30 Paul did visit Jerusalem within
this fourteen year period. The visit he is talking about in Gal 2 is the one
mentioned in Acts 15.

What would be interesting, though, is whether the DIA+genitive indicates a
period that goes back beyond the point in time mentioned in the previous
context. I assume the 14 years are to be counted from the visit mentioned in
1:18 and Acts 9:26-30, but I am just wondering whether it might go back to
his conversion, the time he left Jerusalem for Damascus. I am not sure how
much, if anything, one can read into the choice between META + acc. and DIA
+ gen. My feeling is that it might be almost the opposite of what you have
suggested, but I don't have much to base it on. My feeling is that DIA
indicates that many other things happened in this span of time, whereas META
indicates the next relevant event in a series of related events.

Iver Larsen



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