[b-greek] Matthew 28:1 Interpretation

From: Jonathan Owen (jonathan5@coolgoose.com)
Date: Thu Jan 03 2002 - 01:24:15 EST


Hi! I have a question about the interpretation of Matthew 28:1a. The
phrase "opse de sabbaton" is a bit difficult for me to understand what is
going on in the Greek. We have an adverb (opse) along with a plural
genitive (de sabbaton).

BAGD takes opse as an "improper preposition" with the genitive, so the
interpretation would be "after the Sabbath." In a later discussion one
fellow said the phrase should be interpreted quite literally into "latter
of the Sabbaths." When I pointed out BAGD's use of opse, he said
Blass/Debrunner (and Thayer too I believe) interpreted opse as "latter" or
"later," as well as used the plural "Sabbaths." However I don't have
access to Blass/Debrunner or Thayer. What are the possible interpretation
options for Matt 28:1? Also,is the "literal latter" interpretation
considered a valid option by either references or your opinion?


Thanks
Jonathan Owen



---
B-Greek home page: http://metalab.unc.edu/bgreek
You are currently subscribed to b-greek as: [jwrobie@mindspring.com]
To unsubscribe, forward this message to leave-b-greek-327Q@franklin.oit.unc.edu
To subscribe, send a message to subscribe-b-greek@franklin.oit.unc.edu




This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:37:15 EDT