[b-greek] Re: 1 Peter 2:24

From: c stirling bartholomew (cc.constantine@worldnet.att.net)
Date: Wed Jan 09 2002 - 14:08:46 EST


on 1/8/02 6:59 PM, tmcos@canada.com wrote:

> 1 Peter 2:24 in speaking of Christ's suffering makes reference to the famous
> Servant Song of Isaiah 53. The LXX of Isaiah 53:5 reads TW MWLWPI AUTOU hHMEIS
> IAQHMEN, but Peter writes it as hOU TW MWLWPI IAQHTE. Can anyone comment on
> the difference between IAQHMWN and IAQHTE? I take it that Peter is
> deliberately trying to show that Isaiah 53:6 is fulfilled in Christ.

Tony,

In 1 Peter 2:24 the reading IAQHMEN is found in Miniscule 8 and a few Latin
mss. and other versions. This is also the the reading found in the Rahlfs
LXX. The Hebrew text (MT) has a nifal participle followed by a preposition
with a 1st person plural suffix. So the LXX essentially agrees with the MT
even though it is a somewhat dynamic here.

The reading IAQHMEN 1 Peter 2:24 can be explained by the desire to make it
conform with the LXX and MT. J. R. Michaels (1Pet. WBC, p.134 note k)
suggests that another temptation for a scribe to supply IAQHMEN is the
other 1st person plurals in immediately precceding context (e.g. verse 24,
hHMON, ZHSOMEN). However, if you look at the verses 20-25 you will note that
2nd person plural verbs and pronouns outnumber first person five to one.

Anyway, the reading IAQHTE has much much better mss. support and the LXX/MT
readings provide a clear motive for a scribe to alter it to IAQHMEN.

Why did Peter use the second person plural? Someone else will have to answer
that question. Have not had time to look at it.

greetings,

Clay


--
Clayton Stirling Bartholomew
Three Tree Point
P.O. Box 255 Seahurst WA 98062



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