[b-greek] Re: 1st John 4:13

From: Carl W. Conrad (cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu)
Date: Mon Jan 14 2002 - 09:45:04 EST


At 7:43 PM -0800 1/13/02, waldo slusher wrote:
>In 1st John 4:13,
>
>EN TOUTWi GINWSKOMEN hOTI EN AUTWi MENOMEN KAI AUTOS
>EN hHMIN hOTI EK TOU PNEUMATOS AUTOU DEDWKEN hHMIN
>
>
>Is the prepositional phrase EK TOU PNEUMATOS AUTOU the
>direct object of DEDWKEN or is DEDWKEN being used as
>an intransitive verb?
>
>If the EK had been omitted, I think it would have
>seemed right to me. (He gave to us his Spirit.)

For what it's worth, I think that EK TOU PNEUMATOS AUTOU DEDWKEN hHMIN is
using EK TOU PNEUMATOS AUTOU as a "partitive" expression. I've seen Steven
LoVullo's response and don't fundamentally disagree with it, that there's
some implicit direct object that is qualified by EK TOU PNEUMATOS AUTOU.

You might want to look at Smyth #1341

<http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/cgi-bin/ptext?doc=Perseus%3Atext%3A1999.04.0007&query=head%3D%23312>

In Homeric Greek there was a distinction between two such constructions as:
        (a) PINW TON OINON = "I guzzle (all) the wine"
        (b) PINW TOU OINOIO = "I drink SOME of the wine."
--

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
Most months: 1647 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu OR cwconrad@ioa.com
WWW: http://www.artsci.wustl.edu/~cwconrad/

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