[b-greek] Re: Why does IAKWBOS --> James?

From: Carl W. Conrad (cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu)
Date: Wed Feb 13 2002 - 08:36:09 EST


At 8:50 AM +0100 2/13/02, Iver Larsen wrote:
>> My understanding is that the name is
>> coming to English via two different routes, one more-or-less
>> directly from
>> Hebrew/Greek and the other via French. I do not have the details, alas.
>
>Less directly. According to the Oxford Dictionary the linguistic path is:
>Hebrew Jakob, Greek IAKWBOS, Latin Iakobus, Late Latin Iakomus, Old French
>James

That Latin spelling probably wouuld have been Iacobus (Jacobus) and Iacomus
(Jacomus). The question was raised where The Spanish got Diego; the answer
is that it came from the first part --Iaco/Jaco--: the Spanish San Diego,
the Italian Sant' Iago, the French Saint Jacques, the English Saint James.
--

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
Most months:: 1647 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu OR cwconrad@ioa.com
WWW: http://www.artsci.wustl.edu/~cwconrad/

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