[b-greek] Re: genitive 1Jn 1:1

From: B. Ward Powers (bwpowers@optusnet.com.au)
Date: Sat Mar 23 2002 - 19:41:42 EST


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B-greekers all:

At 05:10 PM 020323 -0500, richard smith wrote:
>One of the real benefits for me of studying NT Greek is that some of the
>phrases which had always seemed to me to be so abstract in the English as
>to have no real significance, now offer the promise of being understood by
>me in meaningful terms.
>
>This is especially true of genitive constructions.


[SNIP]


>If this is so, have I been reading 1 John with John 1 too much in mind?
>
>Peace,
>
>Richard Smith
>Chattanooga, TN


I would say that approaching 1 John with John's Gospel in mind is the right
approach. From my study of both over the years I have come to the
conclusion (not original with me) that 1 John is best approached as being a
kind of brief explanatory commentary on the Gospel - as if it accompanied
the Gospel or was sent to those for whom the Gospel was written. There are
(in my judgement) many things in the Epistle which presuppose the Gospel,
or require the Gospel in order to make sense, or seem to be explicating a
passage in the Gospel. So approaching one with the other in mind makes good
sense to me.

Regards

Ward





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AUSTRALIA. Director, Tyndale College


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