[b-greek] I John 1:8

From: Michael Sawilowsky (msawilowsky@bryanisd.org)
Date: Thu Apr 18 2002 - 13:25:04 EDT


I am at the beginning of my studies of NT Greek and am currently working
through Mounce's "A Graded Reader of Biblical Greek."
I am stuck on one of his questions...

I John 1:8 " EAN EIPWMEN hOTI hAMARTIAN OUK ECOMEN"

Based on BAGD, 2, hAMAPTIA ... hAMAPTIAN ECEIN means "to possess a sinful
nature". If this is correct, how does it affect your exegesis? Had the
author intended here to refer to individual sinful acts, what verb would
he probably used?

Thoughts?

-Michael [Sawilowsky. New list-members please take note: BG
protocol requires a full-name signature to be appended to all
messages sent to the list (regardless whether it's in the "From"
header.]


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