[b-greek] Jn. 20:31 - PISTEUHTE: Tense significance?

From: Danny Smith (davvu@juno.com)
Date: Fri Apr 19 2002 - 22:04:08 EDT


Assuming for the sake of this question that the correct reading in Jn.
20:31 is the present tense, what does that imply? Does the present (as
opposed the aorist) tense imply a continuous action so that it should be
translated "continue to believe" (NIV footnote)? Or does the gloss
"believe" work, which in English seems to imply that it is directed to
those who do not at the time of writing/reading already believe?

Danny Smith

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