From: Polycarp66@aol.com
Date: Sat Apr 20 2002 - 08:16:22 EDT
In a message dated 4/20/2002 5:13:56 AM Eastern Daylight Time,
aei_didaskomenos@hotmail.com writes:
I agree: an implied TINOS (not TINA) or EMOU would be the best way to
understand the passage:
OU CREIAN ECETE EMOU GRAFEIN UMIN.
_____________________
That would be a genitive. I thought the subject of the infinitive was always
in the accusative. Smyth states [I have taken the liberty of numbering his
examples]
____________________________
§936. Subject of the Infinitive.--The subject of the infinitive is in the
accusative:
1. EKELEUON AUTOUS PROEUESQAI
They ordered that they should proceed X.A.4.2.1.
a. See 1975. On the nominative subject of the infinitive, see 1973.
______________________
§1973. When the subject of the infinitive is the same as that of the
governing verb, it is omitted, and a predicate noun stands in the nominative
case.
2. OIMAI EIDENAI
I think that I know P.Pr. 312e,
3. PERSHS EFH EINAI
he said he was a Persian X.A.4.4.17,
4. EGW OUK hOMOLOGHSW AKLHTOS HKEIN
I shall not admit that I have come uninvited P.S. 174d,
5. hOMOLOGEIS PERI EME ADIKOS GEGENHSQAI?
DO YOU ADMIT THAT YOU HAVE BEEN GUILTY AS REGARDS ME? x.a.1.6.8 (CF. 4.2.27
IN 2263).
_____________________
In both sections Smyth mentions a nominative case. The problem is that it is
OMITTED. The one exception is example #3 above. PERSHS is a nominative. It
is declinable, and the accusative is PERSEA. Nevertheless, I'm curious why
Manolis would give the genitive as the subject when the preferred subject of
the infinitive is the accusative. I realize that FILADELFIAS is in the
genitive, but I would still expect the accusative. Perhaps he can enlighten
us regarding this. Alternatively, does one of our classical experts [hint,
hint, Carl] know whether this is a modern development or is it true in other
periods as well?
gfsomsel
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