[b-greek] RE: Thessalonikeis' Infinitive!

From: Polycarp66@aol.com
Date: Sat Apr 20 2002 - 08:16:22 EDT


In a message dated 4/20/2002 5:13:56 AM Eastern Daylight Time,
aei_didaskomenos@hotmail.com writes:

I agree: an implied TINOS (not TINA) or EMOU would be the best way to
understand the passage:

OU CREIAN ECETE EMOU GRAFEIN UMIN.
_____________________

That would be a genitive. I thought the subject of the infinitive was always
in the accusative. Smyth states [I have taken the liberty of numbering his
examples]
____________________________
§936. Subject of the Infinitive.--The subject of the infinitive is in the
accusative:

1. EKELEUON AUTOUS PROEUESQAI

They ordered that they should proceed X.A.4.2.1.
a. See 1975. On the nominative subject of the infinitive, see 1973.
______________________

§1973. When the subject of the infinitive is the same as that of the
governing verb, it is omitted, and a predicate noun stands in the nominative
case.

2. OIMAI EIDENAI

I think that I know P.Pr. 312e,

3. PERSHS EFH EINAI

he said he was a Persian X.A.4.4.17,

4. EGW OUK hOMOLOGHSW AKLHTOS HKEIN

I shall not admit that I have come uninvited P.S. 174d,

5. hOMOLOGEIS PERI EME ADIKOS GEGENHSQAI?

DO YOU ADMIT THAT YOU HAVE BEEN GUILTY AS REGARDS ME? x.a.1.6.8 (CF. 4.2.27
IN 2263).
_____________________

In both sections Smyth mentions a nominative case. The problem is that it is
OMITTED. The one exception is example #3 above. PERSHS is a nominative. It
is declinable, and the accusative is PERSEA. Nevertheless, I'm curious why
Manolis would give the genitive as the subject when the preferred subject of
the infinitive is the accusative. I realize that FILADELFIAS is in the
genitive, but I would still expect the accusative. Perhaps he can enlighten
us regarding this. Alternatively, does one of our classical experts [hint,
hint, Carl] know whether this is a modern development or is it true in other
periods as well?

gfsomsel

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