[b-greek] Re: Romans 1:16

From: Mark Wilson (emory2oo2@hotmail.com)
Date: Tue Apr 09 2002 - 09:48:17 EDT


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Waldo:

--------
>Its news to me that verbs in Greek or English have antecedents. Pronouns
>have
>antecedents....
--------

We might be complicating this a bit. All Greek finite verbs
look like this: (verb + PERSON).

The "verb half" of a Greek verb AGREES with its noun; the
"person half" AGREES with the same noun. I really don't
know if "person" has an ANTECEDENT in Greek.
I think you might be viewing the Greek finite verb something
like this: (verb + PRONOUN). That may be your problem. Change
PRONOUN TO PERSON and then begin your research.

My thoughts

Mark Wilson


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