Dear friends: V.29: hO GAR ESQIWN KAI PINWN KRIMA hEAUTW ESQIEI KAI PINEI MH DIAKRINWN TO SWMA... V.31: EI GAR hEAUTOUS DIEKRINOMEN ... In these two verses same word DIAKRINW is used. But it doesn't look like the meaning is same in both cases. Still the verses are located too close to each other to be coincidence. What did Paul want to achieve by using same word in 2 verses. Or I am wrong, and its meaning is same? But what is the meaning then? Thank you in advance. Dmitriy Reznik ________________________________________________________________ YOU'RE PAYING TOO MUCH FOR THE INTERNET! Juno now offers FREE Internet Access! Try it today - there's no risk! For your FREE software, visit: http://dl.www.juno.com/get/tagj. --- B-Greek home page: http://metalab.unc.edu/bgreek You are currently subscribed to b-greek as: [jwrobie@mindspring.com] To unsubscribe, forward this message to leave-b-greek-327Q@franklin.oit.unc.edu To subscribe, send a message to subscribe-b-greek@franklin.oit.unc.edu