Could someone remind me or explain to me the periphrastic construction in John 3.21: ... hINA FANERWQHi AUTOU TA ERGA hOTI EN QEWi ESTIN EIPGASMENA I understand why ESTIN is singular (neuter plural subjects take a singular verb), but why is the participle, EIPGASMENA, not singular also? Obviously it is controlled by the noun, but why? Rob Matlack 620 E. 5th St., Minneapolis, KS 67467 RMatlack@juno.com Hm: 785-392-2865 Church: 785-392-2089 "...that we may present every man mature in Christ Jesus." ________________________________________________________________ YOU'RE PAYING TOO MUCH FOR THE INTERNET! Juno now offers FREE Internet Access! Try it today - there's no risk! For your FREE software, visit: http://dl.www.juno.com/get/tagj. --- B-Greek home page: http://metalab.unc.edu/bgreek You are currently subscribed to b-greek as: [jwrobie@mindspring.com] To unsubscribe, forward this message to leave-b-greek-327Q@franklin.oit.unc.edu To subscribe, send a message to subscribe-b-greek@franklin.oit.unc.edu