Greetings All: I only received one response to my question about Prov. 31:31, so I thought I would ask again, in hopes of enticing a few more opinions (off-list would probably be best). The translators of the LXX used the term "husband" (ANHR), in Prov. 31:31, instead of "deeds," or "works," which I understand is the term used in all Hebrew texts. I'm curious to hear theories as to how they made that error. I am told that there is no similarity between the Hebrew terms for husband and works, so it seems unlikely that one would have been confused with the other. Any thoughts? Many thanks for your help. Ted Mann thmann@juno.com ________________________________________________________________ YOU'RE PAYING TOO MUCH FOR THE INTERNET! Juno now offers FREE Internet Access! Try it today - there's no risk! For your FREE software, visit: http://dl.www.juno.com/get/tagj. --- B-Greek home page: http://metalab.unc.edu/bgreek You are currently subscribed to b-greek as: [jwrobie@mindspring.com] To unsubscribe, forward this message to leave-b-greek-327Q@franklin.oit.unc.edu To subscribe, send a message to subscribe-b-greek@franklin.oit.unc.edu