I was studying Psalm 41 in the LXX (Ps. 42 in English) and came across an interesting use of the future tense. Ps. 41:5 (LXX) TAUTA EMNHSQHN KAI EXECEA EP' EME THN YUCHN MOU hOTI DIELEUSOMAI EN TOPWi SKHNHS QAUMASTHS hEWS TOU OIKOU TOU QEOU EN FWNHi AGALLIASEWS KAI EXOMOLOGHSEWS HCOU hEOPTAZONTOS. My question centers on the use of the future tense DIELEUSOMAI. Most English versions render the Hebrew as an imperfect: "I used to go . . ." And the Hebrew word is in the prefix form, which indicates imperfective aspect. But, as Carl has mentioned, the LXX can be interpreted on its own merits. My question: What do you make of this use of the future tense? Is this just a bad translation of the underlying Hebrew (changing the sense of the Hebrew text), or can the future tense be used to describe something that used to happen? Thanks! Jonathan Boyd Ankeny, Iowa ________________________________________________________________ GET INTERNET ACCESS FROM JUNO! Juno offers FREE or PREMIUM Internet access for less! Join Juno today! For your FREE software, visit: http://dl.www.juno.com/get/tagj. --- B-Greek home page: http://metalab.unc.edu/bgreek You are currently subscribed to b-greek as: [jwrobie@mindspring.com] To unsubscribe, forward this message to leave-b-greek-327Q@franklin.oit.unc.edu To subscribe, send a message to subscribe-b-greek@franklin.oit.unc.edu