On Fri 6 Apr 2001 (01:33:29 +0200), storch@storchsites.de wrote: > in jesus quotation of the commandments he uses very frequently the 2nd > person singular future indicative (i.e.lk 10:27,mat 22:39). why is this > form always translated as an imperative? > "Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself (mat 22:39)". would it not be > more exactly to translate: "you will..."? > in about 10 german versions i just found one (walter jens) who > translates not an imperative but "normal future". > is the futureform normally used as an imperative? The answer is probably to be found in the original Hebrew form of the Ten Words. In Exodus 20:2-17 most of the "commands" are couched in the Qal Imperfect 2nd person singular, usually translated in the LXX by the Future. There is a Hebrew Imperative, but it is not used in the Ten Words; but with one exception: "Honour thy father and thy mother": which is Pi`el Imperative. The Lord's Summary of the Law in Matthew 22:37-40 consists of two citations from the OT: Deuteronomy 6:4-5 (similar to LXX) and Leviticus 19:18 (same as LXX). These both use the 2nd person singular Future. In Hebrew Deuteronomy 6:5 uses the Qal Imperfect 2nd sing; and Leviticus 19:18 uses the 2nd sing Qal Perfect with Waw Consecutiva (roughly equivalent to the Imperfect). Is the future form normally used as imperative? - it depends who is talking! If your boss says "You will go back to your office and rewrite this letter", then you comply! ERRWSQE Ben -- Revd Ben Crick, BA CF 232 Canterbury Road, Birchington, Kent, CT7 9TD (UK) http://www.cnetwork.co.uk/crick.htm --- B-Greek home page: http://metalab.unc.edu/bgreek You are currently subscribed to b-greek as: [jwrobie@mindspring.com] To unsubscribe, forward this message to leave-b-greek-327Q@franklin.oit.unc.edu To subscribe, send a message to subscribe-b-greek@franklin.oit.unc.edu