John 7:8 hUMEIS ANABHTE EIS THN hEORTHN: EGW OUK ANABAINW EIS THN hEORTHN TAUTHN, hOTI hO EMOS KAIROS OUPW PEPLHRWTAI. I noticed the second ANABAINW is present tense while the first is aorist. In English we can't say, "you go up to the feast, I not go up to this feast." I suspect that one CAN say that in Greek and therefore there is a distinction in tense here. What I'm wondering is this: is the sense of this sentence along the lines of: You go up to the feast; I'm not presently going up to this feast since I have some things I need to complete. If it's translated as "you go up...I'm not going up..." the sense of the second verb is actually more perfective in English than I think the Greek conveys. Here, the English means, "I'm not now, nor ever, going up." But the Greek isn't perfective, it's imperfective, being in the present tense. Does this make sense? What are your thoughts? Thank you a head of time for your feedback. -- Mike Sangrey msangrey@BlueFeltHat.org Landisburg, Pa. "The first one last wins." "A net of highly cohesive details reveals the truth." --- B-Greek home page: http://metalab.unc.edu/bgreek You are currently subscribed to b-greek as: [jwrobie@mindspring.com] To unsubscribe, forward this message to leave-b-greek-327Q@franklin.oit.unc.edu To subscribe, send a message to subscribe-b-greek@franklin.oit.unc.edu