Search found 21 matches
- February 14th, 2024, 12:09 pm
- Forum: New Testament
- Topic: Relative pronouns in Matthew 16:19 and Matthew 18:18
- Replies: 2
- Views: 940
Relative pronouns in Matthew 16:19 and Matthew 18:18
Matthew 16:19--καὶ ὃ ἐὰν δήσῃς ἐπὶ τῆς γῆς ἔσται δεδεμένον ἐν τοῖς οὐρανοῖς, καὶ ὃ ἐὰν λύσῃς ἐπὶ τῆς γῆς ἔσται λελυμένον ἐν τοῖς οὐρανοῖς. Matthew 18:18--ὅσα ἐὰν δήσητε ἐπὶ τῆς γῆς ἔσται δεδεμένα ἐν οὐρανῷ καὶ ὅσα ἐὰν λύσητε ἐπὶ τῆς γῆς ἔσται λελυμένα ἐν οὐρανῷ. Can the relative pronouns in the abov...
- December 4th, 2014, 12:32 am
- Forum: New Testament
- Topic: Chiasmus in Philippians 2:7-8?
- Replies: 16
- Views: 4113
Re: Chiasmus in Philippians 2:7-8?
In my last post I pointed out the grammatical symmetry that results from an interpretation that takes the two halves of the chiasmus in Philippians 2:7-8 synonymously. I would like to know if others think whether this fact (a) tilts the balance in favour of a chiasmus with synonymous parallelism, (b...
- November 26th, 2014, 11:39 am
- Forum: New Testament
- Topic: Chiasmus in Philippians 2:7-8?
- Replies: 16
- Views: 4113
Re: Chiasmus in Philippians 2:7-8?
I write to make a correction. The last two paragraphs of my last post on the above subject should be amended to read as follows: As I construe this passage, σχήματι εὑρεθεὶς ὡς ἄνθρωπος (B1) is a causal participial clause explaining the cause of the action described by the aorist verb ἐταπείνωσεν (A...
- November 24th, 2014, 2:11 am
- Forum: New Testament
- Topic: Chiasmus in Philippians 2:7-8?
- Replies: 16
- Views: 4113
Re: Chiasmus in Philippians 2:7-8?
I think this moves beyond discussion of a stylistic feature into the area of theological interpretation of the text -- a questionable procedure in this forum. I agree, and this was to be expected from the beginning. But Timothy is right: Believe your exegesis is viable but in no way necessitated by...
- November 23rd, 2014, 10:34 pm
- Forum: New Testament
- Topic: Chiasmus in Philippians 2:7-8?
- Replies: 16
- Views: 4113
Re: Chiasmus in Philippians 2:7-8?
I think this moves beyond discussion of a stylistic feature into the area of theological interpretation of the text -- a questionable procedure in this forum. My intention was to just explain my understanding of the passage as applied to the human Jesus to those to whom it might not be clear. There...
- November 23rd, 2014, 7:45 am
- Forum: New Testament
- Topic: Chiasmus in Philippians 2:7-8?
- Replies: 16
- Views: 4113
Re: Chiasmus in Philippians 2:7-8?
Agree on chiasmus. Believe your exegesis is viable but in no way necessitated by the chiastic structure. Why not? Here's a definition of chiasmus I found on the web: "In its most general sense, chiasmus involves inverted parallelism between two or more (synonymously or antithetically) correspo...
- November 21st, 2014, 7:11 am
- Forum: New Testament
- Topic: Chiasmus in Philippians 2:7-8?
- Replies: 16
- Views: 4113
Chiasmus in Philippians 2:7-8?
The clauses in Philippians 2:7-8 appear to be chiastically arranged as follows: v. 5--Τοῦτο φρονεῖτε ἐν ὑμῖν ὃ καὶ ἐν Χριστῷ Ἰησοῦ, 6ὃς ἐν μορφῇ θεοῦ ὑπάρχων οὐχ ἁρπαγμὸν ἡγήσατο τὸ εἶναι ἴσα θεῷ, A--ἀλλ’ ἑαυτὸν ἐκένωσεν μορφὴν δούλου λαβών, B--ἐν ὁμοιώματι ἀνθρώπων γενόμενος· kai B1--σχήματι εὑρεθ...
- September 20th, 2014, 4:47 am
- Forum: New Testament
- Topic: οἱ λοιποὶ ἀπόστολοι καὶ οἱ ἀδελφοὶ τοῦ κυρίου καὶ Κηφᾶς
- Replies: 3
- Views: 1488
οἱ λοιποὶ ἀπόστολοι καὶ οἱ ἀδελφοὶ τοῦ κυρίου καὶ Κηφᾶς
1 Corinthians 9:5: μὴ οὐκ ἔχομεν ἐξουσίαν ἀδελφὴν γυναῖκα περιάγειν ὡς καὶ οἱ λοιποὶ ἀπόστολοι καὶ οἱ ἀδελφοὶ τοῦ κυρίου καὶ Κηφᾶς; The phrase οἱ λοιποὶ ἀπόστολοι καὶ οἱ ἀδελφοὶ τοῦ κυρίου καὶ Κηφᾶς is a puzzling construction. Understood in its simplest grammatical sense, the phrase implies that οἱ ...
- July 7th, 2014, 12:48 am
- Forum: New Testament
- Topic: Greek words rendered as "end" at Mt 24:14; 28:20
- Replies: 4
- Views: 1984
Re: Greek words rendered as "end" at Mt 24:14; 28:20
Hello, Could anyone please tell me whether there is a difference between Greek words τέλος (tel'-os) and συντελείας (soon-tel'-i-ah) used at Matthew 24:14 and 28:20 respectively? Can they refer to the same thing? Do they have the same derivation? Kind regards, Vlad Kotenko If you are asking whether...
- July 2nd, 2014, 6:09 am
- Forum: New Testament
- Topic: John 1:17: is it hendiadys?
- Replies: 25
- Views: 9492
Re: John 1:17: is it hendiadys?
The initial ὅτι probably explains the previous χάριν ἀντὶ χάριτος (grace instead of grace). The two words grace and truth also pick up on the same two words in verse 14: καὶ ἐθεασάμεθα τὴν δόξαν αὐτοῦ, δόξαν ὡς μονογενοῦς παρὰ πατρός, πλήρης χάριτος καὶ ἀληθείας. It seems to me that John is talking...