Articular Infinitive

Biblical Greek morphology and syntax, aspect, linguistics, discourse analysis, and related topics
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Rob Campanaro
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Joined: August 10th, 2013, 5:03 pm

Articular Infinitive

Post by Rob Campanaro »

In an articular infinitive, does the infinitive always follow immediately after the article or can they be separated by several words. For instance, John 17:5;

καὶ νῦν δόξασόν με σύ, ⸀πάτερ, παρὰ σεαυτῷ τῇ δόξῃ ⸁ᾗ εἶχον ⸂πρὸ τοῦ τὸν κόσμον εἶναι παρὰ σοί.

According to Wallace, this would be an infinitive of subsequent time but is it also an articular infinitive?

Thanks!
Robert Campanaro
Coatesville, PA
MAubrey
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Re: Articular Infinitive

Post by MAubrey »

They can be separated by several words.

Infinitives function as the head of a clause and it's the entire infinitival clause that's articular, not just the infinitive verb alone.

[article [infinitive clause [infinitival subjects, objects, etc.] [infinitive]]]
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Jean Putmans
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Re: Articular Infinitive

Post by Jean Putmans »

Some examples: (excuse the use of non-diacritics)

Mt 6.8 : προς του υμας αιτησαι (υμασ = Subj. of AcI
Jn 17:5 προ του τον κοσμον ειναι (idem)
Lk 5:1 εν τω τον οχλον επικεισθαι (idem)
Lk 9:34: εν τω εκεινους εισελθειν (idem)

Mk 5:4 δια το αυτον πολλακις πεδαις και αλυσεσιν δεδεσθαι και υπ' αυτου τας αλυσεις και τας πεδας συντετριφθαι (αυτον= Subj of AcI)

Mt 11:1 του διδασκειν και κυρασσειν (του + two Inf with conjunction)

Lk 4:42 του μη πορευεσθαι (Negation always between Art and Inf)
Lk 8:6 δια το μη εχειν (idem)
Mk 4:5 and 4:6 δια το μη εχειν (idem)


Lk 5:7 του ελθοντας συλλαβεσθαι

Lk 6:48 δια το καλως οικοδομησθαι
Lk 19:11 δια το εγγυς αυτον ειναι
Mk 9:10 το εκ νεκρων αναστηναι

Regards
Jean
Jean Putmans
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Rob Campanaro
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Re: Articular Infinitive

Post by Rob Campanaro »

Thanks to both of you. I was almost certain this was the case but I wanted to be sure. And thank you, Jean for your examples. No points off for missing diacritics.

Regards,
Rob
Robert Campanaro
Coatesville, PA
Stephen Carlson
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Re: Articular Infinitive

Post by Stephen Carlson »

Anybody up for calling them "split infinitives"? :twisted:
Stephen C. Carlson, Ph.D.
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Barry Hofstetter
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Re: Articular Infinitive

Post by Barry Hofstetter »

Stephen Carlson wrote: November 14th, 2019, 8:26 pm Anybody up for calling them "split infinitives"? :twisted:
Yes, to boldly go where no one has gone before. :lol:

Of course, the reason for the "split infinitive" is because of the influence of Latin, in which it is impossible to split an infinitive, a good example of a rule enforced by grammarians trying to make English a little more like Latin. Before that, you have split infinitives galore. Just read Chaucer or even Shakespeare.
N.E. Barry Hofstetter, M.A., Th.M.
Ph.D. Student U of FL
Instructor of Latin
Jack M. Barrack Hebrew Academy
καὶ σὺ τὸ σὸν ποιήσεις κἀγὼ τὸ ἐμόν. ἆρον τὸ σὸν καὶ ὕπαγε.
Rob Campanaro
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Re: Articular Infinitive

Post by Rob Campanaro »

I have to quickly thank everyone again. ;)
Robert Campanaro
Coatesville, PA
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