Hebraic/Hebrew Genitive

[Barry Hofstetter]

Or you can quote a classical grammar, i.e.:

One of these days I will start with those; I just keep forgetting!

It doesn’t however tell me whether this usage saw a major bump in frequency in the NT and Septuagint which might be attributed to Semitic influence.

I'm not sure either. What I can tell you is that it's certainly common enough in Classical Greek that it's frequency in either the LXX or the NT probably wouldn't even be noticed by Plato, should he have read those documents.

[Matthew Longhorn]

I'm not sure either. What I can tell you is that it's certainly common enough in Classical Greek that it's frequency in either the LXX or the NT probably wouldn't even be noticed by Plato, should he have read those documents.

Thanks, that is interesting to hear. Whilst it doesn’t impact translation, I am always just interested language development. Hearing from you classicists is good.

[RandallButh]

Τοιοῦτο πολλῶν ἐστιν ἦθος ἀνθρώπων... "Such is the custom of many men..."

It's a genitive, but it is not a noun that serves in place of a simple adjective.
Τhat could have been ἦθος ἀνθρώπων = ἀνθρώπινον ἦθος,
but not really *πολι-ἀνθρώπινον ἦθος

[Barry Hofstetter]

Τοιοῦτο πολλῶν ἐστιν ἦθος ἀνθρώπων... "Such is the custom of many men..."

It's a genitive, but it is not a noun that serves in place of a simple adjective.
Τhat could have been ἦθος ἀνθρώπων = ἀνθρώπινον ἦθος,
but not really *πολι-ἀνθρώπινον ἦθος

I think you just split a hair, Randall, but if that's the way you want it, fine.

[RandallButh]

It's because I filter this discussion two ways,
Greek development: classical vs Hellenistic including secular vs. Jewish
and
Greek vs. Hebrew,

which was the start of the thread.

[Matthew Longhorn]

It's because I filter this discussion two ways,
Greek development: classical vs Hellenistic including secular vs. Jewish
and
Greek vs. Hebrew,

which was the start of the thread.

I intended the thread to be really just about whether there is a case for this use of the genitive as being influenced by Hebrew. The possible development between classical to Hellenistic is just one sort of evidence for / against that hypothesis. My ability to post clear topics needs work!

[Stephen Carlson]

Or you can quote a classical grammar, i.e.:

One of these days I will start with those; I just keep forgetting!

It doesn’t however tell me whether this usage saw a major bump in frequency in the NT and Septuagint which might be attributed to Semitic influence.

Barry's not quoting the part of Smyth most relevant to the so-called Hebrew Genitive. That is the genitive of quality §§ 1320-1, and it has much more limited distribution in Classical than in the NT.

[Barry Hofstetter]

Barry's not quoting the part of Smyth most relevant to the so-called Hebrew Genitive. That is the genitive of quality §§ 1320-1, and it has much more limited distribution in Classical than in the NT.

Thanks for pointing that out.