Glenn,
I see σαρξ as a noncount noun without a qualitative force.
But I just came across θεός μάρτυς at 1 Thess 2:5! It may be, though, that it is a shortened formula for θεός έστιν ο μάρτυς μου. See BDAG under μάρτυς. Or it may be that a verbal force is in view...I could use help on this one.
Colwell's focus was on definiteness not on qualitativeness. Philip B. Harner took up the qualitative. My first reading of Harner last night seemed to me to be covered by some of Harris' observations. I noted that the "nomina sacra" κύριος, υιός make up a portion of anarthrous PN's that Harner comments on as he works through Mark. And there are also nouns like βασιλευς that are definite even without the article because the context makes it clear in that there is only one king that could be referenced.
Preverbal anarthrous predicate nouns; are they qualitative?
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Re: Preverbal anarthrous predicate nouns; are they qualitati
Would
ὁ θεὸς ἀγάπη ἐστίν (1 John 4:8)
be an example of a preverbal anarthrous predicate noun that is qualitative?
ὁ θεὸς ἀγάπη ἐστίν (1 John 4:8)
be an example of a preverbal anarthrous predicate noun that is qualitative?
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- Posts: 450
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Re: Preverbal anarthrous predicate nouns; are they qualitati
ἀγάπη would be an abstract noun rather than a concrete noun. Abstract nouns also lend themselves to be noncount nouns as do food, materials and metals.GlennDean wrote:Would
ὁ θεὸς ἀγάπη ἐστίν (1 John 4:8)
be an example of a preverbal anarthrous predicate noun that is qualitative?
Scott Lawson
Re: Preverbal anarthrous predicate nouns; are they qualitati
On 1 Thes 2:5, you might to look at Romans 1:9 where a similar construction is:
μάρτυς γάρ μού ἐστιν ὁ θεός ("For God is my witness")
Note that μάρτυς is preverbal predicate noun and is anarthrous. But is it qualitative? Definite?
Glenn
μάρτυς γάρ μού ἐστιν ὁ θεός ("For God is my witness")
Note that μάρτυς is preverbal predicate noun and is anarthrous. But is it qualitative? Definite?
Glenn
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Re: Preverbal anarthrous predicate nouns; are they qualitati
I'm beginning to go back (before I was so rudely interrupted by Harner, Wallace and Hartley) to the idea that indefinite and qualitative are circular ideas and subjective. If something is indefinite and a member of a class then it likely has the characteristics of the members of that class. And conversely if it has all the characteristics of the members of a class then it is likely a member of the class...it seems a futile search for a concrete noun that is qualitative...it seems to be self contradictory. The whole matter of I-Q or Q-I is futile. I see no point in searching further. The most cogent question to ask of preverbal anarthrous predicate nouns is; are they definite or indefinite. What do y'all say?
Scott Lawson
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Re: Preverbal anarthrous predicate nouns; are they qualitati
I agree entirely and would love to read more discussion on the matter.Scott Lawson wrote:I'm beginning to go back (before I was so rudely interrupted by Harner, Wallace and Hartley) to the idea that indefinite and qualitative are circular ideas and subjective. If something is indefinite and a member of a class then it likely has the characteristics of the members of that class. And conversely if it has all the characteristics of the members of a class then it is likely a member of the class...it seems a futile search for a concrete noun that is qualitative...it seems to be self contradictory. The whole matter of I-Q or Q-I is futile. I see no point in searching further. The most cogent question to ask of preverbal anarthrous predicate nouns is; are they definite or indefinite. What do y'all say?
It seems to me that the I vs Q problem is the result of attempting to force onto the Greek categories that exist in English but don't inherently exist in that language since it lacks an indefinite article.