Here, I want to look at Col 3:14. Let's give it some context:
In v.12, the Colossians are told to clothes themselves with various virtues, all anarthrous (heart of mercy, kindness, humility, etc.), and then at the beginning of v.14, "on top of all these" (ἐπὶ πᾶσιν δὲ τούτοις), "love" (τὴν ἀγάπην). But this time, the virtue is arthrous. Why?Col 3:12-14 wrote:12 Ἐνδύσασθε οὖν, ὡς ἐκλεκτοὶ τοῦ θεοῦ ἅγιοι καὶ ἠγαπημένοι, σπλάγχνα οἰκτιρμοῦ χρηστότητα ταπεινοφροσύνην πραΰτητα μακροθυμίαν, 13 ἀνεχόμενοι ἀλλήλων καὶ χαριζόμενοι ἑαυτοῖς ἐάν τις πρός τινα ἔχῃ μομφήν· καθὼς καὶ ὁ κύριος ἐχαρίσατο ὑμῖν, οὕτως καὶ ὑμεῖς· 14 ἐπὶ πᾶσιν δὲ τούτοις τὴν ἀγάπην, ὅ ἐστιν σύνδεσμος τῆς τελειότητος.
The usual suspects for the article are not present here. For example, there's no anaphora to a prior mention of love in the context. The Exegetical Guide to the Greek New Testament ventures "The art. with ἀγάπη suggests that concrete expressions of love, love dramatized, is in mind (cf. Z § 146)." -- but this seems to be grasping at straws since the context is general not concrete. What gives?