John 12:17-19 (NIV)
Now the crowd that was with him when he called Lazarus from the tomb and raised him from the dead continued to spread the word.
Many people, because they had heard that he had performed this sign, went out to meet him.
So the Pharisees said to one another, “See, this is getting us nowhere. Look how the [*whole] world has gone after him!”
https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/? ... NIV;SBLGNTἐμαρτύρει οὖν ὁ ὄχλος ὁ ὢν μετ’ αὐτοῦ ὅτε τὸν Λάζαρον ἐφώνησεν ἐκ τοῦ μνημείου καὶ ἤγειρεν αὐτὸν ἐκ νεκρῶν.
διὰ τοῦτο καὶ ὑπήντησεν αὐτῷ ὁ ὄχλος ὅτι ἤκουσαν τοῦτο αὐτὸν πεποιηκέναι τὸ σημεῖον.
οἱ οὖν Φαρισαῖοι εἶπαν πρὸς ἑαυτούς· «Θεωρεῖτε ὅτι οὐκ ὠφελεῖτε οὐδέν· ἴδε ὁ κόσμος [*ὅλος] ὀπίσω αὐτοῦ ἀπῆλθεν.»
*The NIV's use of [ὅλος] is oddly absent from the NA28 apparatus. According to Swanson, it's attested in D L Θ Ψ f13 157 1071 33
BDAG classifies this usage of "κόσμος" as follows (emphasis added):
Modern Greek has a well-attested, common usage of "κόσμος" in the sense of "people".⑥ humanity in general, the world
ⓐ gener.
all the world, everybody Ac 2:47 D; 1 Cl 5:7; cp. ἐν ὅλῳ τῷ κ. 59:2; εἰς ὅλον τὸν κ. Hs 8, 3, 2. Likew. ὁ κόσμος (cp. Philo, De Prov. in Eus., PE 8, 14, 58) ὁ κ. ὀπίσω αὐτοῦ ἀπῆλθεν J 12:19. ταῦτα λαλῶ εἰς τὸν κ. 8:26; ἐν τῷ κ. 17:13; ἐγὼ παρρησίᾳ λελάληκα τῷ κ. 18:20; cp. 7:4; 14:22. ἵνα γνῷ ὁ κ. 14:31; cp. 17:23; ἵνα ὁ κ. πιστεύῃ 17:21.
Per Wiktionary:
https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/κόσμος(collective, in the singular) society, people, the masses
-Δεν φταίει ο κόσμος, φταίνε οι πολιτικοί.
-It is not the fault of the people, it is the politicians' fault.
(expression)
-όλος ο κόσμος ― everybody
Why don't Lexicons categorize "κόσμος" in the sense of "everybody," in a way that's more restrictive than "all the world"? BDAG seems to skim over this without breaking out "everybody" under a heading that's separate from "all the world". But these categories seem distinct in this context.
Is it reasonable to conclude that the "world" in John 12:19 is roughly interchangeable with the "crowd" referenced in the previous verses? If so, wouldn't "everybody" or "everyone" be better, idiomatic translations, rather than the hyper-literal gloss "world"?
Or is this generally understood as hyperbole on the part of the Pharisees? Or perhaps, having mentioned the "crowd," the subsequent occurrence of "[the whole] world" simply implies "everyone (in that particular crowd)," hence the scribal interpolation [ὅλος] (i.e. "the whole crowd").
Obviously, there must have been some diachronic semantic development at play, by which the term's common sense of "humanity" was narrowed into a concrete sense of "people" or "the masses" (in Modern Greek). John 12:19 seems like it would be a good candidate for a precursor to this development. But I'm not sure why the gloss ("everyone") isn't more common or, at least, more prominent in BDAG vis–à-vis John 12:19.