We have ὁμοῦ "in the same place" four times and ὁμόσε "to the same place" (almost) once, but not ὁμόθεν "from the same place" in the New Testament.
I don't see a reason for not using it in composition, but is there any textual evidence for ὁμόθεν being used by period Koine authours?
Evidence for the use of ὁμόθεν in Koine times?
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Evidence for the use of ὁμόθεν in Koine times?
Γελᾷ δ' ὁ μωρός, κἄν τι μὴ γέλοιον ᾖ
(Menander, Γνῶμαι μονόστιχοι 108)
(Menander, Γνῶμαι μονόστιχοι 108)
Re: Evidence for the use of ὁμόθεν in Koine times?
Only checked one of these out over at Perseus - http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/wor ... &sort=name
Apollonius Rhodius has used it once in Argonautica - that's more or less around the start of the koine period:
http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/tex ... 28mo%2Fqen
Apollonius Rhodius has used it once in Argonautica - that's more or less around the start of the koine period:
http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/tex ... 28mo%2Fqen
Re: Evidence for the use of ὁμόθεν in Koine times?
I also found a usage in Plutarch's Pompey:
ἀνέστησαν οὖν ἐπʼ αὐτὸν τρεῖς ἅμα στρατηγοὶ πολέμιοι, Καρίνας καὶ Κλοίλιος καὶ Βροῦτος, οὐκ ἐναντίοι πάντες οὐδὲ ὁμόθεν...
Plutarch. (1917). Plutarch’s Lives. (B. Perrin, Ed.) (p. 128). Medford, MA: Harvard University Press.
ἀνέστησαν οὖν ἐπʼ αὐτὸν τρεῖς ἅμα στρατηγοὶ πολέμιοι, Καρίνας καὶ Κλοίλιος καὶ Βροῦτος, οὐκ ἐναντίοι πάντες οὐδὲ ὁμόθεν...
Plutarch. (1917). Plutarch’s Lives. (B. Perrin, Ed.) (p. 128). Medford, MA: Harvard University Press.
Re: Evidence for the use of ὁμόθεν in Koine times?
Suffice to say, there is very little usage of it by any author from the looks of things.
Just checked through the rest of the Perseus list, and most are either pre-koine, or essentially Athenaeus (4th cent CE) uses more than just once.
At 17 recorded uses, certainly one of the least used adverbs.
Be interesting to see the statistics of the adverbs as to which was the most common.
Just checked through the rest of the Perseus list, and most are either pre-koine, or essentially Athenaeus (4th cent CE) uses more than just once.
At 17 recorded uses, certainly one of the least used adverbs.
Be interesting to see the statistics of the adverbs as to which was the most common.
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Re: Evidence for the use of ὁμόθεν in Koine times?
I guess you're asking about all adverbs generally, but let me say that within this family, the -οῦ form ὁμοῦ seems to be the most frequent. The same seems true of the μηδαμοῦ "nowhere" family too.
I think the trick for young players in composition here with ὁμοῦ is that it means "in the same place (as each other)", whereas αυτοῦmeans "in the same place (as we were just talking about)".
Γελᾷ δ' ὁ μωρός, κἄν τι μὴ γέλοιον ᾖ
(Menander, Γνῶμαι μονόστιχοι 108)
(Menander, Γνῶμαι μονόστιχοι 108)