MAubrey wrote: ↑October 24th, 2021, 5:25 pm
"In Classical Greek, the perfect went through a transition from resultative to anterior (current relevance) with increasing transitivity."
This is a flawed premise to build a book on. Classicists assume this position as a given and then NT people assume that they're right without actually checking. And it's not right.
Classicists are always right. Just ask us...
But as amusing as it is, your observation seems quite... well, simplistic and over-broad. While I've never done any systematic study and certainly can't bring the linguistics perspective that you and Stephen can employ, I have noticed that during the classical period the perfect is actually quite rare, and usually makes sense as resultative. There seems to be a time during the Hellenistic and Roman periods where the perfect shows up more frequently, and in my recollection often makes best sense as a simple preterit (I'm thinking primarily of Lucian of Samasota, but a few others as well).
But maybe actually reading the book in the OP would be helpful, rather than speculating on what he might or might not say.