Mark 6:5 καὶ οὐκ ἐδύνατο ⸂ἐκεῖ ποιῆσαι οὐδεμίαν δύναμιν⸃, εἰ μὴ ὀλίγοις ἀρρώστοις ἐπιθεὶς τὰς χεῖρας ἐθεράπευσεν.
Mark 6:19 ἡ δὲ Ἡρῳδιὰς ἐνεῖχεν αὐτῷ καὶ ἤθελεν αὐτὸν ἀποκτεῖναι, καὶ οὐκ ἠδύνατο·
δύναμαι (Hom.+) dep.; pres. 2 sg. δύνῃ and δύνασαι; impf. ἠδυνάμην
What is the difference between ἐδύνατο and ἠδύνατο?
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Jacob Rhoden
- Posts: 171
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What is the difference between ἐδύνατο and ἠδύνατο?
It is used both ways in Mark 6, BDAG seems to imply the correct form for the imperfect uses the η, however accordance tags both as 3rd person singular imperfect.
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Barry Hofstetter
Re: What is the difference between ἐδύνατο and ἠδύνατο?
Both augments are attested for both the imperfect and the aorist. This is simply a formal difference, nothing else. Variations like this are not uncommon in Hellenistic Greek.
Re: What is the difference between ἐδύνατο and ἠδύνατο?
As an English analogy:
Some people spell 'gray' and other people spell 'grey'. Both are correct. The difference used to be dialectal, but with the growth of cross-dialectal interaction, but get used by the same people from time to time.
Some people spell 'gray' and other people spell 'grey'. Both are correct. The difference used to be dialectal, but with the growth of cross-dialectal interaction, but get used by the same people from time to time.
Mike Aubrey, Linguist
SIL International
Koine-Greek.com
SIL International
Koine-Greek.com
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Stephen Carlson
- Posts: 3355
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- Location: Melbourne
- Contact:
Re: What is the difference between ἐδύνατο and ἠδύνατο?
In my view, δύναμαι ~ ἠδύνατο is an analogical remodeling based on θέλω ~ ἤθελον, except that the quantitative augment is actually etymologically correct for the latter.
Stephen C. Carlson, Ph.D.
Melbourne, Australia
Melbourne, Australia