B-Greek: The Biblical Greek Forum

I was a little surprised after reading this verse in greek, to flick across to English and see how αγιων was translated in ESV, and NASB:

η χαρις του κυριου ιησου [χριστου] μετα των αγιων

ESV and NASB translates it as "with all" whereas NLT, and NIV use "God's holy people" and "God's people".

Other bibles all in parallell: http://biblehub.com/revelation/22-21.htm

My greek reading ability is still very beginner so I may be missing something obvious, but why would it expand from "God's holy people" to "all"? Perhaps the translators assuming people assume verse is directly connected to Revelation 1:1 in terms of audience?

Jacob Rhoden wrote:I was a little surprised after reading this verse in greek, to flick across to English and see how αγιων was translated in ESV, and NASB:

η χαρις του κυριου ιησου [χριστου] μετα των αγιων

ESV and NASB translates it as "with all" whereas NLT, and NIV use "God's holy people" and "God's people".

Other bibles all in parallell: http://biblehub.com/revelation/22-21.htm

My greek reading ability is still very beginner so I may be missing something obvious, but why would it expand from "God's holy people" to "all"? Perhaps the translators assuming people assume verse is directly connected to Revelation 1:1 in terms of audience?

You have to be careful to line up the right Greek text with the right translation here. ESV and NASB will be translating from the text which reads:

Ἡ χάρις τοῦ κυρίου Ἰησοῦ μετὰ πάντων. = "The grace of the Lord Jesus Christ be with all."

The Byzantine text is: Ἡ χάρις τοῦ κυρίου Ἰησοῦ χριστοῦ μετὰ πάντων τῶν ἁγίων. Ἀμήν. = "The grace of the Lord Jesus Christ be with all of the saints. Amen"

That explains it, Thanks!

Short of reading a few 1990's formatted sites that say we should use KJV only, I've not yet read anything much about the different versions/source texts. I am just using what is online and in logos for now.