I'm having a hard time translating γενναω. Specifically, what's the difference between it and γινομαι? In the lexicon it says "be born, beget, or bring forth" but how would you translate it in the passive voice?
An example:
Matt. 6:10 "...γενηθητω το θελημα σου..."
-I think the idea is "let your will come about" but I don't quite get why.
-What would be the difference if it said γινεσθω instead?
γενναω
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Re: γενναω
Another example would be in John 3, where it's used mostly in the passive voice. Why not the active? If the active means to be born?
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Re: γενναω
What lexicon are you using? Here is Abbott-Smith:
Abbott-Smith wrote:γεννάω, -ῶ (< γέννα, poët. for γένος), [in LXX chiefly for ילד ;]
1. of the father, to beget: c. acc., Mt 1:1-16, Ac 7:8, 29; seq. ἐκ, Mt 1:3, 5, 6.
2. Of the mother, to bring forth, bear: Lk 1:13, 57 23:29, Jo 16:21; εἰς δουλείαν, Ga 4:24.
Pass.
(1) to be begotten: Mt 1:20;
(2) to be born: Mt 2:1, 4 19:12 26:24, Mk 14:21, Lk 1:35, Jo 3:4, Ac 7:20, Ro 9:11, He 11:23; seq. εἰς, Jo 16:21 18:37, II Pe 2:12; ἐν, Ac 2:8 22:3, (ἁμαρτίαις), Jo 9:34; ἀπό, He 11:12 (WH, mg., ἐγεν-); ἐκ, Jo 1:13 3:6 8:41; c. adj., τυφλὸς γ., Jo 9:2; [Ῥωμαῖος ], Ac 22:28; κατὰ σάρκα: κ. πνεῦμα: Ga 4:29. Metaph.; μάχας, II Ti 2:23; ὑμᾶς ἐγέννησα, I Co 4:15, (ὅν), Phm 10; in quotation, Ps 2:7 (LXX), Ac 13:33, He 1:5 5:5; of Christians as begotten of God, born again: Jo 1:13 3:3, 5-8, I Jo 2:29 3:9 4:7 5:1, 4, 18 (cf. ἀνα-γεννάω); (Cremer, 146).
ἐξίσταντο δὲ πάντες καὶ διηποροῦντο, ἄλλος πρὸς ἄλλον λέγοντες, τί θέλει τοῦτο εἶναι;
http://jonathanrobie.biblicalhumanities.org/
http://jonathanrobie.biblicalhumanities.org/
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Re: γενναω
A couple of notes:
1) γενηθητω is a form of γινομαι, not γενναω.
2) Can you cite any instances where the active form of γενναω means 'be born'? In the examples I see, the active form means 'beget/bear' and the passive form means 'be born'. The two voices appear in contrast in Matthew 1:16, Ἰακὼβ δὲ ἐγέννησεν τὸν Ἰωσὴφ τὸν ἄνδρα Μαρίας, ἐξ ἧς ἐγεννήθη Ἰησοῦς ὁ λεγόμενος χριστός.
1) γενηθητω is a form of γινομαι, not γενναω.
2) Can you cite any instances where the active form of γενναω means 'be born'? In the examples I see, the active form means 'beget/bear' and the passive form means 'be born'. The two voices appear in contrast in Matthew 1:16, Ἰακὼβ δὲ ἐγέννησεν τὸν Ἰωσὴφ τὸν ἄνδρα Μαρίας, ἐξ ἧς ἐγεννήθη Ἰησοῦς ὁ λεγόμενος χριστός.
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Re: γενναω
Koine Greek has active/mediopassive distinction where active is the default voice, not marked, and mediopassive is marked for subject-affectedness. The mediopassive can be used only when there is subject-affectedness while the active can be used in all situations. Mediopassive has two forms, the traditional "medium" morphology and the traditional "passive" morphology. But the distinction doesn't necessarily mean semantic medium/passive distinction. The passive forms are more often used for prototypical passive situations where there are the agent which is the grammatical subject and the patient which is the grammatical object, and the verb is transitive. But the passive forms are also used to mark other kinds of subject-affectedness, just like the medium forms. "To be born" is a subject-affected event. Therefore mediopassive is natural for it.Michael Sharpnack wrote:Another example would be in John 3, where it's used mostly in the passive voice. Why not the active? If the active means to be born?
Why not the active - it can be used for subject-affected situation, after all? Just because. We don't know the reason why with a certain word mediopassive is used instead of active (while active could basically be used with a subject-affected verb), or why active is used instead of mediopassive (while the mediopassive could naturally be used with a subject-affected verb). You just have to learn it when you learn the word. In this situation the active form clearly means something like "give birth" so the mediopassive naturally means that being born happens to someone, i.e. that someone - the subject - is affected by the situation.
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Re: γενναω
Well, actually that was the definition in my vocab list from my textbook. That entry from Abbott-Smith helps.Jonathan Robie wrote:What lexicon are you using? Here is Abbott-Smith:
Oh, hmm. I guess γενναω would have the double nu? Would that be the only difference? That explains part of my problem.timothy_p_mcmahon wrote: 1) γενηθητω is a form of γινομαι, not γενναω.
Looking at all the posts, I think the translation of the active as "be born" from the textbook was my problem. If I take it to mean beget/bear/bring forth in the active, and be born/be begotten in the passive, it makes more sense to me.timothy_p_mcmahon wrote: 2) Can you cite any instances where the active form of γενναω means 'be born'? In the examples I see, the active form means 'beget/bear' and the passive form means 'be born'. The two voices appear in contrast in Matthew 1:16, Ἰακὼβ δὲ ἐγέννησεν τὸν Ἰωσὴφ τὸν ἄνδρα Μαρίας, ἐξ ἧς ἐγεννήθη Ἰησοῦς ὁ λεγόμενος χριστός.
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Re: γενναω
Yes. The corresponding γενναω form would be γεννηθητω.Michael Sharpnack wrote:Oh, hmm. I guess γενναω would have the double nu? Would that be the only difference? That explains part of my problem.
Considering the affinity in both phonology and meaning, me wonders whether these two verbs spring from a common root.
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Re: γενναω
Most etymologists think so. γεννᾶν has some derivational suffix that irregularly doubled the consonant.timothy_p_mcmahon wrote:Considering the affinity in both phonology and meaning, me wonders whether these two verbs spring from a common root.
Stephen C. Carlson, Ph.D.
Melbourne, Australia
Melbourne, Australia