Re: The expression: "ἐντεῦθεν καὶ ἐντεῦθεν"
Posted: December 23rd, 2019, 3:24 pm
Thanks Jason and Barry! The idea of an agenda is always a possibility, especially when someone doesn't want to accept the text at face value.
ibiblio.org/bgreek/forum/
https://www.ibiblio.org:443/bgreek/forum/
https://www.ibiblio.org:443/bgreek/forum/viewtopic.php?f=46&t=950
I agree, especially in the light of Carl Conrad's 2012 response.Barry Hofstetter wrote: ↑December 23rd, 2019, 2:00 pmI agree with Jason, well answered, as it was in this forum above in 2012. Often if an individual asks the same question over and over, when it has been correctly and fairly answered, there is an agenda involved.Brent Niedergall wrote: ↑December 23rd, 2019, 8:53 am I came across a recent post on Reddit from Ted, who hasn’t given up on his quest for a satisfying answer. Here is my response.
https://niedergall.com/an-obscure-greek ... an-answer/
Anything anyone would add or take away?
Oh, I see. It's an attempt to twist the Greek language in order to smooth over an apparent contradiction within the Gospels. Gotcha.timothy_p_mcmahon wrote: ↑December 23rd, 2019, 10:32 pm No doubt here’s the Agenda.
https://biblestudyforlife.com/PDF/compa ... df#page496
Since neither this text (John 19.18) nor any early text says ἐσταύρωσαν... μετ᾿ αὐτοῦ ἄλλους τέσσαρας, δύο ἐντεῦθεν καὶ δύο ἐντεῦθεν (“they crucified... four others with him, two here and two there”), I don’t think your speculation has met the standards of proof required to establish it. Why do you think it is that there is not a single gospel or any other text in the history of early Christendom that says that there were four crucified with him? Is there a conspiracy to obscure how many people were crucified alongside Jesus? Every single gospel says two (Matt 27.38; Mark 15.27; Luke 23.32; John 19.18). Not a single one says four. That serves as a major problem for you.