John 1:29
Posted: January 18th, 2017, 12:11 pm
Τῇ ἐπαύριον βλέπει ὁ Ἰωάννης τὸν Ἰησοῦν ἐρχόμενον πρὸς αὐτόν, καὶ λέγει· Ἴδε ὁ ἀμνὸς τοῦ Θεοῦ ὁ αἴρων τὴν ἁμαρτίαν τοῦ κόσμου. (PT 1904)
Regarding βλέπει (PAI-3S) and λέγει (PAI-3S). In the RSV and NKJV these are translated as the English past tense "saw" and "said;" whereas the KJV translates them (correctly?) as "seeth" (English: Simple PI-3S of "see") and "saith" (English: Simple PI-3S of "say"). I haven't found any grammar rule for Greek or English as to why. Any help?
Regarding βλέπει (PAI-3S) and λέγει (PAI-3S). In the RSV and NKJV these are translated as the English past tense "saw" and "said;" whereas the KJV translates them (correctly?) as "seeth" (English: Simple PI-3S of "see") and "saith" (English: Simple PI-3S of "say"). I haven't found any grammar rule for Greek or English as to why. Any help?