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John 1:29

Posted: January 18th, 2017, 12:11 pm
by Thomas Sandberg
Τῇ ἐπαύριον βλέπει ὁ Ἰωάννης τὸν Ἰησοῦν ἐρχόμενον πρὸς αὐτόν, καὶ λέγει· Ἴδε ὁ ἀμνὸς τοῦ Θεοῦ ὁ αἴρων τὴν ἁμαρτίαν τοῦ κόσμου. (PT 1904)

Regarding βλέπει (PAI-3S) and λέγει (PAI-3S). In the RSV and NKJV these are translated as the English past tense "saw" and "said;" whereas the KJV translates them (correctly?) as "seeth" (English: Simple PI-3S of "see") and "saith" (English: Simple PI-3S of "say"). I haven't found any grammar rule for Greek or English as to why. Any help?

Re: John 1:29

Posted: January 18th, 2017, 6:27 pm
by Robert Emil Berge
The use of the historical present is very common in Greek. It sometimes works in English as well, but is often better translated into the past tense.

Re: John 1:29

Posted: January 18th, 2017, 6:36 pm
by Robert Emil Berge

Re: John 1:29

Posted: February 11th, 2017, 9:02 pm
by Thomas Sandberg
Εὐχαριστῶ.