John 1:41 - τον μεσιαν ο εστιν μεθερμηνευομενον χριστος

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David Lim
Posts: 901
Joined: June 6th, 2011, 6:55 am

John 1:41 - τον μεσιαν ο εστιν μεθερμηνευομενον χριστος

Post by David Lim »

[John 1] [41] ευρισκει ουτος πρωτος τον αδελφον τον ιδιον σιμωνα και λεγει αυτω ευρηκαμεν τον μεσιαν ο εστιν μεθερμηνευομενον χριστος
I read "τον μεσιαν ο εστιν μεθερμηνευομενον χριστος" as "the Messiah; which is, being interpreted, Christ;", especially since it is similar to John 1:38, in which the participle is certainly in a subordinate clause. However I just saw some website stating that John 1:41 is an example of the present periphrastic. Is it likely?
δαυιδ λιμ
Barry Hofstetter

Re: John 1:41 - τον μεσιαν ο εστιν μεθερμηνευομενον χριστος

Post by Barry Hofstetter »

David Lim wrote:
[John 1] [41] ευρισκει ουτος πρωτος τον αδελφον τον ιδιον σιμωνα και λεγει αυτω ευρηκαμεν τον μεσιαν ο εστιν μεθερμηνευομενον χριστος
I read "τον μεσιαν ο εστιν μεθερμηνευομενον χριστος" as "the Messiah; which is, being interpreted, Christ;", especially since it is similar to John 1:38, in which the participle is certainly in a subordinate clause. However I just saw some website stating that John 1:41 is an example of the present periphrastic. Is it likely?
Hey, David, this is one of those things. 1:38 uses λέγεται as the main verb, which means it has to be a participle. 1:41 uses ἐστίν, which could be interpreted :roll: as a periphrastic present. In either case, I don't see a huge difference in meaning. John is simply informing his readers, apparently not too familiar with Hebrew, that "Messiah" means Christos.
David Lim
Posts: 901
Joined: June 6th, 2011, 6:55 am

Re: John 1:41 - τον μεσιαν ο εστιν μεθερμηνευομενον χριστος

Post by David Lim »

Barry Hofstetter wrote:
David Lim wrote:
[John 1] [41] ευρισκει ουτος πρωτος τον αδελφον τον ιδιον σιμωνα και λεγει αυτω ευρηκαμεν τον μεσιαν ο εστιν μεθερμηνευομενον χριστος
I read "τον μεσιαν ο εστιν μεθερμηνευομενον χριστος" as "the Messiah; which is, being interpreted, Christ;", especially since it is similar to John 1:38, in which the participle is certainly in a subordinate clause. However I just saw some website stating that John 1:41 is an example of the present periphrastic. Is it likely?
Hey, David, this is one of those things. 1:38 uses λέγεται as the main verb, which means it has to be a participle. 1:41 uses ἐστίν, which could be interpreted :roll: as a periphrastic present. In either case, I don't see a huge difference in meaning. John is simply informing his readers, apparently not too familiar with Hebrew, that "Messiah" means Christos.
Yes I know the meaning is the same, but I was just wondering which underlying structure was more likely (as if likelihood could be judged). ;)
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