I read "τον μεσιαν ο εστιν μεθερμηνευομενον χριστος" as "the Messiah; which is, being interpreted, Christ;", especially since it is similar to John 1:38, in which the participle is certainly in a subordinate clause. However I just saw some website stating that John 1:41 is an example of the present periphrastic. Is it likely?[John 1] [41] ευρισκει ουτος πρωτος τον αδελφον τον ιδιον σιμωνα και λεγει αυτω ευρηκαμεν τον μεσιαν ο εστιν μεθερμηνευομενον χριστος
John 1:41 - τον μεσιαν ο εστιν μεθερμηνευομενον χριστος
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This is a beginner's forum - see the Koine Greek forum for more advanced discussion of Greek texts. Please quote the Greek text you are discussing directly in your post if it is reasonably short - do not ask people to look it up.
When answering questions in this forum, keep it simple, and aim your responses to the level of the person asking the question.
John 1:41 - τον μεσιαν ο εστιν μεθερμηνευομενον χριστος
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Barry Hofstetter
Re: John 1:41 - τον μεσιαν ο εστιν μεθερμηνευομενον χριστος
Hey, David, this is one of those things. 1:38 uses λέγεται as the main verb, which means it has to be a participle. 1:41 uses ἐστίν, which could be interpretedDavid Lim wrote:I read "τον μεσιαν ο εστιν μεθερμηνευομενον χριστος" as "the Messiah; which is, being interpreted, Christ;", especially since it is similar to John 1:38, in which the participle is certainly in a subordinate clause. However I just saw some website stating that John 1:41 is an example of the present periphrastic. Is it likely?[John 1] [41] ευρισκει ουτος πρωτος τον αδελφον τον ιδιον σιμωνα και λεγει αυτω ευρηκαμεν τον μεσιαν ο εστιν μεθερμηνευομενον χριστος
Re: John 1:41 - τον μεσιαν ο εστιν μεθερμηνευομενον χριστος
Yes I know the meaning is the same, but I was just wondering which underlying structure was more likely (as if likelihood could be judged).Barry Hofstetter wrote:Hey, David, this is one of those things. 1:38 uses λέγεται as the main verb, which means it has to be a participle. 1:41 uses ἐστίν, which could be interpretedDavid Lim wrote:I read "τον μεσιαν ο εστιν μεθερμηνευομενον χριστος" as "the Messiah; which is, being interpreted, Christ;", especially since it is similar to John 1:38, in which the participle is certainly in a subordinate clause. However I just saw some website stating that John 1:41 is an example of the present periphrastic. Is it likely?[John 1] [41] ευρισκει ουτος πρωτος τον αδελφον τον ιδιον σιμωνα και λεγει αυτω ευρηκαμεν τον μεσιαν ο εστιν μεθερμηνευομενον χριστοςas a periphrastic present. In either case, I don't see a huge difference in meaning. John is simply informing his readers, apparently not too familiar with Hebrew, that "Messiah" means Christos.
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