Greek texts such as the New Testament, The Greek Old Testament (Septuagint/LXX), Patristic Greek texts, Papyri, and other Greek writings of the New Testament era. Discussion must focus on the Greek text, not on modern language translations, theological controversies, or textual criticism.
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I understand that the only reason this slightly entertaining reduplication in P66 would have occurred would be scribal error. Is that correct?
Is there any ancient/historical/linguistic reason that there might be any reason to suspect otherwise? I've never (for example) heard of a "pluperfect" participle.
It's just a scribal error.
Note that the first γε is at the end of one line, and the rest (γεγεννημενον) is on the next line.
Ken M. Penner
Professor and Chair of Religious Studies, St. Francis Xavier University
Editor, Digital Biblical Studies
General Editor, Lexham English Septuagint
Co-Editor, Online Critical Pseudepigrapha pseudepigrapha.org
Dittography of a sort, right? But I like the description of it as "slightly entertaining," like the little girl who knew how to spell "banana" but didn't know when to stop.
Thanks! I figured that was the case, but I just wanted to double check. The fact that it runs over the end of a line is interesting, I only saw this information in the CNTTS apparatus, not the original document.
I love the Banana analogy, it does feel just like that
