A question about gender

[Mike Burke]

Does the gender of a verb have to agree with the gender of the subject?

For example, is δελεάζοντες masculine in 2 Peter 2:14 because ψευδοδιδάσκαλοι (in 2 Peter 2:1) is masculine?

[Barry Hofstetter]

Does the gender of a verb have to agree with the gender of the subject?

For example, is δελεάζοντες masculine in 2 Peter 2:14 because ψευδοδιδάσκαλοι (in 2 Peter 2:1) is masculine?

Finite verbs (verbs which have person and number) are not marked for gender in Greek. δελεάζοντες, however, is a participle, and so is marked for case, number and gender because participles are verbal adjectives. It is masculine nominative plural and does refer to ψευδοδιδάσκαλοι, as do all the various nominative plurals throughout this section.