Greetings!
It seems that ἐφοβοῦντο γάρ is a complete sentence and γάρ is a post-positive work, but is it normal for a Greek work to end γάρ? If it is, I know that will not settle the debate as to where the Gospel of Mark originally ended, but I am wondering if it would be a normal ending?
Mark 16:8, γάρ
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Re: Mark 16:8, γάρ
It’s not really common to have a one word sentence but when you do and add γάρ to it, it will end in γἀρ. There are sentences that end in γάρ in the LXX and other works, and there’s even an entire book from a pagan philosopher that ends in γάρ. I believe the latest discussion is: https://www.jstor.org/stable/43725642
Stephen C. Carlson, Ph.D.
Melbourne, Australia
Melbourne, Australia