Punctuation in the Lord's Prayer (Matthew 6:9-13)

[mikeatnip]

I wouldn't want to bake this interpretation into my understanding of what the Greek word means.

Yeah, that could be a recipe for disaster if mixed in to the wrong recipe.

[Stephen Carlson]

Wiktionary tells me that the άνω τελεία is used thus:

1. Separates groups of clauses in a sentence.
2. Separates two parts of a sentence where a κόμμα is thought to be inadequate.

But Πάτερ ἡμῶν ὁ ἐν τοῖς οὐρανοῖς is not a clause, and the whitespace separates these three very parallel lines (which I am putting back together below):

The Wiktionary page describes modern Greek punctuation, but some editions follow Byzantine practice. Actually, (2) is basically fine though inadequate since one would have know what a κόμμα is, and (1) is merely an example of (2). More pertinently, this punctuation mark separates colons (κῶλα), and vocatives can form a colon.

[Mitch Tulloch]

I think interpretation always has to be a balanced interplay between prototypical meaning(s) of words and their meaning within context (both immediate and larger). But I'll leave off further discussion here as I'm still pretty much a beginner when it comes to the former.

[Jonathan Robie]

Wiktionary tells me that the άνω τελεία is used thus:

1. Separates groups of clauses in a sentence.
2. Separates two parts of a sentence where a κόμμα is thought to be inadequate.

But Πάτερ ἡμῶν ὁ ἐν τοῖς οὐρανοῖς is not a clause, and the whitespace separates these three very parallel lines (which I am putting back together below):

The Wiktionary page describes modern Greek punctuation, but some editions follow Byzantine practice. Actually, (2) is basically fine though inadequate since one would have know what a κόμμα is, and (1) is merely an example of (2). More pertinently, this punctuation mark separates colons (κῶλα), and vocatives can form a colon.

Where can I find a useful discussion of this? I really don't know anything about Byzantine Greek punctuation.