Matt 1:2 article usage

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RandallButh
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Joined: May 13th, 2011, 4:01 am

Re: Matt 1:2 article usage

Post by RandallButh »

Yes. Certainly a Greek reading the LXX would sense something foreign. And the "gospel Greek" did not, and would not, read like Plutarch's Lives.

But documenting discussion...
It would be nice if someone could collect ancient comments, maybe including Aristeas on LXX and probably starting in NT times with Papias**.

I don't remember or know of purely academic discussions on NT style like Demetrius "On Style" but ancient discussions or parallels of discussions of Phrynicus Arabius "Selection of Atticisms" would be nice, digging up items like, e.g. Origen On the Inspiration of Scripture 1.7 "the hidden splendour of the doctrines veiled in common and unattractive phrase­ology."

**And the presbyter said this. Mark having become the interpreter of Peter, wrote down accurately whatsoever he remembered. It was not, however, in exact order that he related the sayings or deeds of Christ. For he neither heard the Lord nor accompanied Him. But afterwards, as I said, he accompanied Peter, who accommodated his instructions to the necessities [of his hearers], but with no intention of giving a regular narrative of the Lord's sayings. Wherefore Mark made no mistake in thus writing some things as he remembered them. For of one thing he took especial care, not to omit anything he had heard, and not to put anything fictitious into the statements. [This is what is related by Papias regarding Mark; but with regard to Matthew he has made the following statements]: Matthew put together the oracles [of the Lord] in the Hebrew language, and each one interpreted them as best he could.
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