This question arose here: https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/ ... r-god-is-l
While I have an intuitive sense of what this might mean I am wondering how it would be explained using a proper linguistic analysis:
[1Jo 4:8 MGNT] (8) ὁ μὴ ἀγαπῶν οὐκ ἔγνω τὸν θεόν ὅτι ὁ θεὸς ἀγάπη [b]ἐστίν[/b]
In 1 John 4:8 what is the role of ἐστίν?
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When answering questions in this forum, keep it simple, and aim your responses to the level of the person asking the question.
In 1 John 4:8 what is the role of ἐστίν?
What I lack in youth I make up for in immaturity.
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Barry Hofstetter
Re: In 1 John 4:8 what is the role of ἐστίν?
It's simply the man verb in the ὅτι clause. The use is copulative, equating θεός with ἀγάπη.
Re: In 1 John 4:8 what is the role of ἐστίν?
Thanks Barry. So would you say that ἐστίν indicates that "love" is just another name for God? IE: There is no other way to read this other than a marker of identity?
What I lack in youth I make up for in immaturity.