In Romans 11:25, is it possible that εἰσέλθῃ is ingressive?

[Bill Ross]

[Romans 11:25 MGNT] (25) οὐ γὰρ θέλω ὑμᾶς ἀγνοεῖν ἀδελφοί τὸ μυστήριον τοῦτο ἵνα μὴ ἦτε παρ᾽ ἑαυτοῖς φρόνιμοι ὅτι πώρωσις ἀπὸ μέρους τῷ Ἰσραὴλ γέγονεν ἄχρις οὗ τὸ πλήρωμα τῶν ἐθνῶν εἰσέλθῃ

[Romans 11:25 NASB20] (25) For I do not want you, brothers [and sisters,] to be uninformed of this mystery--so that you will not be wise in your own estimation--that a partial hardening has happened to Israel until the fullness of the Gentiles has come in;

As background to my question, please note that the English translators generally seem to ignore the word οὗ and leave it untranslated, as we see in the NASB20. However, if I'm understanding BDAG correctly, he uses this specific instance as an example of where this pronoun can be used with ἄχρι as "until the time when."

...as soon as, after 8, 1, 4.—ἀφʼ οὗ (s. ἀπό 2bγ) when once, since Lk 13:25; 24:21; Rv 16:18. ἄχρι οὗ (s. ἄχρι 1bα) until (the time when) Ac 7:18; Ro 11:25; 1 Cor 11:26; Gal 3:19. Also ἕως οὗ until Mt 1:25; 13:33; 14:22; 17:9; Lk 13:21; D 11:6 al. μέχρις οὗ until Mk 13:30; Gal 4:19.—On the gen. οὗ as an adv. of place s. it as a separate entry...

Arndt, W., Danker, F. W., Bauer, W., & Gingrich, F. W. (2000). A Greek-English lexicon of the New Testament and other early Christian literature (3rd ed., p. 727). Chicago: University of Chicago Press.

εἰσέλθῃ is an Aorist Active Subjunctive, so I'm not sure how it works with ingressives. Is it, or might it be an ingressive?

More background... as generally translated, the temporary partial judicial hardening of the Jews would persist until the time when gentiles would no longer be converted, and then the hardening would be lifted. I'm shaking the passage to see what else drops out.

[Barry Hofstetter]

I have never seen a use of the ingressive aorist that is not indicative. The aorist subjunctive simply views the action as a whole, and such distinctives are not relevant.

As for ἄχρι οὗ it functions as a unit, and that's why you don't see οὗ rendered separately

[Jonathan Robie]

As for ἄχρι οὗ it functions as a unit, and that's why you don't see οὗ rendered separately

And FWIW, this part of the cited BDAG says that:

ἄχρι οὗ (s. ἄχρι 1bα) until (the time when) Ac 7:18; Ro 11:25; 1 Cor 11:26; Gal 3:19.[/b][/u ]Also ἕως οὗ until Mt 1:25; 13:33; 14:22; 17:9; Lk 13:21; D 11:6 al. μέχρις οὗ until Mk 13:30; Gal 4:19.

[Bill Ross]

Okay, thanks. I actually have come to an understanding of the passage since I posted this question and it doesn't involve an ingressive, so I'm happy. But it is useful to have the grammar question settled nonetheless as I struggle with non-indicative nuances.

For the curious, I think the time he has in mind is the 3.5 year period of the 70 AD/CE war with Rome in which the Jews are "shattered," Jerusalem is destroyed and left desolate and the Jewish theocracy is destroyed:

[Luke 21:24 ASV] (24) And they shall fall by the edge of the sword, and shall be led captive into all the nations: and Jerusalem shall be trodden down of the Gentiles, until the times of the Gentiles be fulfilled.

After that, the "blindness in part" was lifted.

[Daniel 12:7 ASV] (7) And I heard the man clothed in linen, who was above the waters of the river, when he held up his right hand and his left hand unto heaven, and sware by him that liveth for ever that it shall be for a time, times, and a half; and when they have made an end of breaking in pieces the power of the holy people, all these things shall be finished.

[Daniel 7:25 ASV] (25) And he shall speak words against the Most High, and shall wear out the saints of the Most High; and he shall think to change the times and the law; and they shall be given into his hand until a time and times and half a time.

[Revelation 12:14 ASV] (14) And there were given to the woman the two wings of the great eagle, that she might fly into the wilderness unto her place, where she is nourished for a time, and times, and half a time, from the face of the serpent.

[Jeremiah 6:26 ASV] (26) O daughter of my people, gird thee with sackcloth, and wallow thyself in ashes: make thee mourning, as for an only son, most bitter lamentation; for the destroyer shall suddenly come upon us.

[Amos 8:10 ASV] (10) And I will turn your feasts into mourning, and all your songs into lamentation; and I will bring sackcloth upon all loins, and baldness upon every head; and I will make it as the mourning for an only son, and the end thereof as a bitter day.

[Revelation 1:7 HNV] (7) Behold, he is coming with the clouds, and every eye will see him, including those who pierced him. All the tribes of the eretz [promised land] will mourn over him. Even so, Amein.

[Barry Hofstetter]

Okay, thanks. I actually have come to an understanding of the passage since I posted this question and it doesn't involve an ingressive, so I'm happy. But it is useful to have the grammar question settled nonetheless as I struggle with non-indicative nuances.

I'm glad your Greek question was answered. The rest is not relevant to this forum.