John 21:17 "λέγει αὐτῷ τὸ τρίτον· Σίμων Ἰωάννου, φιλεῖς με (Joh 21:17 BGT)"

[Barry Hofstetter]

Dear Barry,

Thank you very much for your reminding and advice and explanation. I know I need to work harder on Greek.

You told me that "the third time " means that Jesus said the same content as before. But it seems to me otherwise when I look into the text and other related text. Could you see my last post about this?


Your any comment is welcome. Thank you for your forbearance with me.

A slight difference in wording does not necessarily mean a difference in content.

[michaelwwww]

A slight difference in wording does not necessarily mean a difference in content.

Coul you tell me what do you mean by this? Do you mean that "ἀγαπᾷς με πλέον τούτων (Joh 21:15 BGT) " and "ἀγαπᾷς με (Joh 21:16 WHO)" have no difference in content? If so, according to your understanding, how different are two sentences that they are different in content?

Thank you for your help.

[Jonathan Robie]

A slight difference in wording does not necessarily mean a difference in content.

Barry, do you believe it would be incorrect Greek to say the following in order to describe the three questions Jesus asked?

λέγει αὐτῷ τὸ πρώτον Σίμων Ἰωάννου, ἀγαπᾷς με πλέον τούτων;
λέγει αὐτῷ τὸ δεύτερον Σίμων Ἰωάννου, ἀγαπᾷς με;
λέγει αὐτῷ τὸ τρίτον Σίμων Ἰωάννου, φιλεῖς με;

[Barry Hofstetter]

A slight difference in wording does not necessarily mean a difference in content.

Barry, do you believe it would be incorrect Greek to say the following in order to describe the three questions Jesus asked?

λέγει αὐτῷ τὸ πρώτον Σίμων Ἰωάννου, ἀγαπᾷς με πλέον τούτων;
λέγει αὐτῷ τὸ δεύτερον Σίμων Ἰωάννου, ἀγαπᾷς με;
λέγει αὐτῷ τὸ τρίτον Σίμων Ἰωάννου, φιλεῖς με;

No, this is fine.

[Jonathan Robie]

Barry, do you believe it would be incorrect Greek to say the following in order to describe the three questions Jesus asked?

λέγει αὐτῷ τὸ πρώτον Σίμων Ἰωάννου, ἀγαπᾷς με πλέον τούτων;
λέγει αὐτῷ τὸ δεύτερον Σίμων Ἰωάννου, ἀγαπᾷς με;
λέγει αὐτῷ τὸ τρίτον Σίμων Ἰωάννου, φιλεῖς με;

No, this is fine.

To me, this suggests that ἐλυπήθη ὁ Πέτρος ὅτι εἶπεν αὐτῷ τὸ τρίτον, Φιλεῖς με; could mean that Peter was distressed by the content, not just by the repetition.