τίς in Titus 1:6
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Please quote the Greek text you are discussing directly in your post if it is reasonably short - do not ask people to look it up. This is not a beginner's forum, competence in Greek is assumed.
τίς in Titus 1:6
In Titus 1:6, we see the phrase εἴ τίς ἐστιν. In many translations τίς is rendered as 'man' or' elder'. Since τίς is an indefinite, what is the justification for rendering this in the masculine rather than as 'anyone' as the ESV or Young's so render it?
Glen Rogers
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Re: τίς in Titus 1:6
UBS Translation commentary:
"This verse begins with if any man (better “if anyone”). It makes no sense to translate the Greek literally here, since what comes out is somewhat ungrammatical, if not unclear, as RSV shows. In fact what the text seems to be saying is that Titus can appoint people to be elders if they have the qualifications as stated. Most translations therefore restructure the text along these lines."
Since within verse 6, one of the qualifications is being the "man' of one woman, it seems that some translators added meaning from the context.
"This verse begins with if any man (better “if anyone”). It makes no sense to translate the Greek literally here, since what comes out is somewhat ungrammatical, if not unclear, as RSV shows. In fact what the text seems to be saying is that Titus can appoint people to be elders if they have the qualifications as stated. Most translations therefore restructure the text along these lines."
Since within verse 6, one of the qualifications is being the "man' of one woman, it seems that some translators added meaning from the context.
Re: τίς in Titus 1:6
Yea, that is pretty much the way I understand it, especially since ἀνέγκλητος is masculine. It seems to me that Young is being too literal here.
Glen Rogers
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Re: τίς in Titus 1:6
Ἀνέγκλητος, -ον “without reproach, blameless” is a two-termination adjective. It is expressly not exclusively masculine. The feminine nominative singular form of this adjective is also ἀνέγκλητος. Most words with the alpha privative share a common termination for masculine and feminine.
Jason A. Hare
The Hebrew Café
Tel Aviv, Israel
The Hebrew Café
Tel Aviv, Israel
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Re: τίς in Titus 1:6
Sounds like a translation question. The Greek indefinite makes an animate (τις) -- inanimate (τι) distinction, which isn't gendered on masculine or feminine lines (same as English 'someone' 'anyone'). In context, it is in apposition to ἀνήρ, so the indefinite could be rendered "any man" but that would seem to emphasize the gender more than the Greek original.
Stephen C. Carlson, Ph.D.
Melbourne, Australia
Melbourne, Australia