Stephen,
Here is the Matt 3
15 ἀποκριθεὶς δὲ ὁ Ἰησοῦς εἶπεν πρὸς αὐτόν, Ἄφες ἄρτι, οὕτως γὰρ πρέπον ἐστὶν ἡμῖν πληρῶσαι πᾶσαν δικαιοσύνην.
τότε ἀφίησιν αὐτόν. 16 βαπτισθεὶς δὲ ὁ Ἰησοῦς εὐθὺς ἀνέβη ἀπὸ τοῦ ὕδατος
τότε ἀφίησιν αὐτόν
τότε adv. then, at that time... What happens after their discussion...
Then, at that time, John
permits it...
This is, in my model, a very common, vanilla usage of the Present Tense in Narrative.
3.16 After Jesus was baptized (note Matt begins to develop another contextually based DC/C, showing the temporal elements)
Stephen, I don't think our models are convertible. If you are saying that the contextually based Present Tense in Model B (the one I subscribe to) can mean the same as the HP in Model A (the one you subscribe to), I just don't see how. I think you would then have to adopt the Historical Aorist, Historical Perfect, and the Historical Future, not just the HP. And I am not sure how you would explain a HP in light of the entire book. However, let me be quick to add that I feel you are moving in the right direction, and I'm not implying you've made some significant change in your thinking based on our exchanges. We still retain our different, and I would say non-convertible, models.
That the Present Tense of ἀφίησιν in Matt 3.15 seems so natural within my model, it was hard to see why you would use this HP as a difficult tense usage. I understand in your model it does, but it is just natural in mine. I think the "thinking" within each model is noticeable different.
Shall we continue to beat these two dead horses?
)