Were you looking for point by points and a discussion to follow, or just an impressionistic answer?Stephen Carlson wrote:Who's got the better of the argument?
Telicity of ἐλθεῖν (ἕρχομαι)?
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Re: Telicity of ἐλθεῖν (ἕρχομαι)?
Γελᾷ δ' ὁ μωρός, κἄν τι μὴ γέλοιον ᾖ
(Menander, Γνῶμαι μονόστιχοι 108)
(Menander, Γνῶμαι μονόστιχοι 108)
Re: Telicity of ἐλθεῖν (ἕρχομαι)?
Just to clarify:
Is Espinsosa concluding that ἐλθεῖν is inherently telic?
Or that ἐλθεῖν can be used in telic contexts?
Is Espinsosa concluding that ἐλθεῖν is inherently telic?
Or that ἐλθεῖν can be used in telic contexts?
Mike Aubrey, Linguist
SIL International
Koine-Greek.com
SIL International
Koine-Greek.com
Re: Telicity of ἐλθεῖν (ἕρχομαι)?
I would say the former is incontrovertibly false.MAubrey wrote:Just to clarify:
Is Espinsosa concluding that ἐλθεῖν is inherently telic?
Or that ἐλθεῖν can be used in telic contexts?
Mike Aubrey, Linguist
SIL International
Koine-Greek.com
SIL International
Koine-Greek.com
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Re: Telicity of ἐλθεῖν (ἕρχομαι)?
"Inherently telic" is not a collocation in Espinosa's paper, so to answer this kind of question, we'd have to figure what you and Espinsosa mean by "inherently" and "telic" and see if and how they match up. For example, Espinosa talks about ἐλθεῖν being "lexically telic" and "inherently deictic" but are those the same as or different from your "inherently telic"?MAubrey wrote:Just to clarify:
Is Espinsosa concluding that ἐλθεῖν is inherently telic?
Or that ἐλθεῖν can be used in telic contexts?
Stephen C. Carlson, Ph.D.
Melbourne, Australia
Melbourne, Australia
Re: Telicity of ἐλθεῖν (ἕρχομαι)?
Well, he bases his 'lexical telicity' on the basis that the verb 'denotes motion toward the deictic center', so they seem the same to me. Either way, I'm not sure that's a very good inference for him to make.Stephen Carlson wrote:Espinosa talks about ἐλθεῖν being "lexically telic" and "inherently deictic" but are those the same as or different from your "inherently telic"?
Mike Aubrey, Linguist
SIL International
Koine-Greek.com
SIL International
Koine-Greek.com
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Re: Telicity of ἐλθεῖν (ἕρχομαι)?
And what's your objection to it? The general concept? Or, as as applied to ἐλθεῖν?MAubrey wrote:Well, he bases his 'lexical telicity' on the basis that the verb 'denotes motion toward the deictic center', so they seem the same to me. Either way, I'm not sure that's a very good inference for him to make.Stephen Carlson wrote:Espinosa talks about ἐλθεῖν being "lexically telic" and "inherently deictic" but are those the same as or different from your "inherently telic"?
Stephen C. Carlson, Ph.D.
Melbourne, Australia
Melbourne, Australia
Re: Telicity of ἐλθεῖν (ἕρχομαι)?
I think that it is intentional. That's what Linguists do when they're talking about Greek to other Linguists, rather than to those who regularly work in Greek.Stephen Hughes wrote:Stephen Carlson wrote:That's what happens when writers don't use Unicode fonts.Stephen Hughes wrote:The Greek that is being discussed in those theses is coming up in some places in English letters! I'm finding that difficult to read and distracting.Well, actually, looking at it again more closely, it seems to be intentional...Stephen Hughes wrote:Does my computer need something else to be done to it to display the Greek words properly in the Greek alphabet?Example of transliterated Greek from RMS wrote:phulassō ... diaphulassō
οὔτοι ἀπ’ ἀρχῆς πάντα θεοὶ θνητοῖς ὑπέδειξαν,
ἀλλὰ χρόνῳ ζητέοντες ἐφευρίσκουσιν ἄμεινον. (Xenophanes, Fragment 16)
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)
ἀλλὰ χρόνῳ ζητέοντες ἐφευρίσκουσιν ἄμεινον. (Xenophanes, Fragment 16)
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)
Re: Telicity of ἐλθεῖν (ἕρχομαι)?
Ain't Linguistic lexicology wunnerful? Sometimes I wunner if it's a communicable disease. (Sorry about that, but I couldn't help it.)MAubrey wrote:Well, he bases his 'lexical telicity' on the basis that the verb 'denotes motion toward the deictic center', so they seem the same to me. Either way, I'm not sure that's a very good inference for him to make.Stephen Carlson wrote:Espinosa talks about ἐλθεῖν being "lexically telic" and "inherently deictic" but are those the same as or different from your "inherently telic"?
οὔτοι ἀπ’ ἀρχῆς πάντα θεοὶ θνητοῖς ὑπέδειξαν,
ἀλλὰ χρόνῳ ζητέοντες ἐφευρίσκουσιν ἄμεινον. (Xenophanes, Fragment 16)
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)
ἀλλὰ χρόνῳ ζητέοντες ἐφευρίσκουσιν ἄμεινον. (Xenophanes, Fragment 16)
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)
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Re: Telicity of ἐλθεῖν (ἕρχομαι)?
I should add that "motion toward" a destination does not define a telic event, but an atelic activity. I think Espinosa meant "motion to," which would be telic. It is an error on his part to say "toward."MAubrey wrote:Well, he bases his 'lexical telicity' on the basis that the verb 'denotes motion toward the deictic center', so they seem the same to me. Either way, I'm not sure that's a very good inference for him to make.
Stephen C. Carlson, Ph.D.
Melbourne, Australia
Melbourne, Australia
Re: Telicity of ἐλθεῖν (ἕρχομαι)?
Agreed, if the verb is telic, then that would be the bettter characterization.Stephen Carlson wrote:I should add that "motion toward" a destination does not define a telic event, but an atelic activity. I think Espinosa meant "motion to," which would be telic. It is an error on his part to say "toward."MAubrey wrote:Well, he bases his 'lexical telicity' on the basis that the verb 'denotes motion toward the deictic center', so they seem the same to me. Either way, I'm not sure that's a very good inference for him to make.
But clauses like: δόξα θεοῦ Ισραηλ ἤρχετο κατὰ τὴν ὁδὸν (Ezekiel 43:2) or ἦλθεν γὰρ Ισραηλ ὁδὸν Αθαριν (Numbers 21:1) tell me that the verb isn't telic. I also think his analysis of Matt 15:29 is getting awfully close to question begging.
Mike Aubrey, Linguist
SIL International
Koine-Greek.com
SIL International
Koine-Greek.com