1 Cor 7.6

[Alan Patterson]

7:1 περι δε ων εγραψατε καλον ανθρωπω γυναικος μη απτεσθαι
7:2 δια δε τας πορνειας εκαστος την εαυτου γυναικα εχετω και εκαστη τον ιδιον ανδρα εχετω
7:3 τη γυναικι ο ανηρ την οφειλην αποδιδοτω ομοιως δε και η γυνη τω ανδρι
7:4 η γυνη του ιδιου σωματος ουκ εξουσιαζει αλλα ο ανηρ ομοιως δε και ο ανηρ του ιδιου σωματος ουκ εξουσιαζει αλλα η γυνη
7:5 μη αποστερειτε αλληλους ει μητι [αν] εκ συμφωνου προς καιρον ινα σχολασητε τη προσευχη και παλιν επι το αυτο ητε ινα μη πειραζη υμας ο σατανας δια την ακρασιαν [υμων]
7:6 τουτο δε λεγω κατα συγγνωμην ου κατ επιταγην

What is the antecedent to τουτο of verse 6? Can it reference the discussion from vs 1, or is it generally understood to refer to a much closer antecedent, vs 5?

[Stephen Carlson]

It's not really a question that Greek can answer. Both vv.1-5 and v.5 are equally "close" to be an antecedent for τοῦτο. Deciding between these requires a deeper analysis than grammar can provide.

Though the question may be exegetical, it falls on the theological rather than grammatical side of the analysis.

[Jason Hare]

Though the question may be exegetical, it falls on the theological rather than grammatical side of the analysis.

Why is that? Is it not clearly this entire set of instructions from the beginning of the passage until this comment? What other option is there?

[Alan Patterson]

Stephen,

You answered my question. Thank you. I just wanted to know the Grammatical options before me. If TOUTO can modify the immediately preceding verse just as it could modify the preceding vv, then I can now, after doing a grammatical analysis, move beyond to the theological. Are you in agreement or is there something I am overlooking? Grammar rarely answers any significant questions, if you ask me, but I do like to keep my understanding of a text within its grammatical limits.