Same form, different tense and mood?

From: L. E. Brown (budman@sedona.net)
Date: Wed Feb 26 1997 - 22:05:49 EST


Two Questions ---

I've been working on Galatians 5:16-6:8, to determine whether or not
this passage warns us that not only will we 'reap' a corrupt nature
(6:8), but we will also lose our rewards in the kingdom (5:21).

Of particular interest is the phrase, "inherit the kingdom." Thus far
in my study it seems that "inherit the kingdom" ( = inherit eternal
life in the Synoptics) refers to taking possession of or being
rewarded with a share in kingdom rewards. But I don't have a lot of
lexical resources available (only the standard stuff).

QUESTION 1 -
So does anyone out there have any extra-biblical references that might
cast further light on the possible fields of meaning for KLHRONOMEW?

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Studying Galatians 5:21's "inherit the kingdom" brought me to a
synoptic passage: Matthew 19:16-30, Mark 10:17-31 and Luke 18:18-30.
Some interesting observations, and then the question.

        a The rich young ruler asked about inheriting eternal life.
        a' Jesus answered in terms of inheriting kingdom rewards.

                (Mk 10:17-20 inheriting eternal life = having treasure
                        in heaven = entering the kingdom of GOD)

                (Mt 19:28 rewarded with a share in kingdom authority
                        [= coheirs elsewhere?])

        b The rich young ruler asked what good deeds must be done to
                inherit eternal life.
        b' Jesus did not say, "there are no good deeds that can be done
                to inherit eternal life." Rather, "here is what you must do,
                but it is *very difficult* for the wealthy to do these
                things."

                (EXCURSUS: 'inheriting eternal life' // 'inheriting the
                kingdom' do not refer to salvation in the sense of forgiveness
                of sin and eschatological deliverance from hell!).

Anyhow, I wander.

My question is this. In Luke 18:18 and Mark 10:17 the same form of the
verb KLHRONOMEW is used. Yet Mark 10:17 is parsed as an aorist
subjunctive and Luke 18:18 is parsed as a future indicative. The only
difference b/t the two is the 'ina in Mark 10:17. ARE THERE ANY OTHER
REASONS WHY THEY SHOULD NOT BOTH BE PARSED THE SAME WAY -- EITHER BOTH
AORIST SUBJUNCTIVES OR FUTURE INDICATIVES?
                
In His Service,
        Bud Brown
=================================================
FRESH SERMON ILLUSTRATIONS Dr. L. E. Brown, Jr.
http://fp.sedona.net/budman
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