a question on subjunctive

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DavidP83
Posts: 8
Joined: February 18th, 2022, 5:01 am

a question on subjunctive

Post by DavidP83 »

Hello,

In Hermas Sheperd (Vision I), we find the following verse "διαβὰς οὖν τὸν ποταμὸν ἐκεῖνον ἦλθον εἰς τὰ ὁμαλά, καὶ τιθῶ τὰ γόνατα καὶ ἠρξάμην προσεύχεσθαι τῷ κυρίῳ καὶ ἐξομολογεῖσθαί μου τὰς ἁμαρτίας".

Could you please explain to me the meaning of the subjunctive for "τιθῶ τὰ γόνατα" / i kneeled down while the rest of the verse is at the indicative mood?

Thank you very much
John Kendall
Posts: 25
Joined: May 31st, 2011, 5:41 pm

Re: a question on subjunctive

Post by John Kendall »

It's a 1st sg. pres. act. indicative. See BDAG, which opens its entry as:
τίθημι (Hom.+) and its by-form τιθέω (Hv 1, 1, 3 and 2, 1, 2 as historical present; B-D-F §321; s. Rob. 318)
DavidP83
Posts: 8
Joined: February 18th, 2022, 5:01 am

Re: a question on subjunctive

Post by DavidP83 »

Thank you very much John. Very appreciated
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