22 Αἱ γυναῖκες τοῖς ἰδίοις ἀνδράσιν ὡς τῷ κυρίῳ
In doing some preliminary research (i.e. word studies on their usage), it does appear, in a basic sense, that ἰδίοις seems to be used more with women and their husbands and ἑαυτοῦ with men and their wives. I am reading through Steven Runge's Discourse Grammar and in the opening pages he makes the extremely salient point, that change has meaning. If Paul uses ἰδίοις in v22 and then immediately switches to ἑαυτοῦ (and 9 more times again in this section), it seems logical that there is a semantic significance between ἰδίοις and ἑαυτοῦ, right?? It reminds me of the ἀγαπᾷς/φιλῶ exchange between Jesus and Peter in John 21:15-17.28 οὕτως ὀφείλουσιν καὶ οἱ ἄνδρες ἀγαπᾶν τὰς ἑαυτῶν γυναῖκας ὡς τὰ ἑαυτῶν σώματα· ὁ ἀγαπῶν τὴν ἑαυτοῦ γυναῖκα ἑαυτὸν ἀγαπᾷ
I found one attempt on some web page regarding possession vs reflexion, but it just didn't seem to land where I thought it should.
Of course, I could just be grossly wrong, but that's why I seek the opinions here.
Thanks in advance for any insight.
Tobey