Dear Friends of Greek,
in John 16,13 it reads: Ὅταν δὲ ἔλθῃ ἐκεῖνος, τὸ πνεῦμα τῆς ἀληθείας, ὁδηγήσει ὑμᾶς εἰς πᾶσαν τὴν ἀλήθειαν·
πνεῦμα is an Apposition to ἐκεῖνος, but why does the Gender (mask. - neuter) not agree ?
Thank you for a clarification !
Yours
Peter, Germany
Gender of EKEINOS in Joh 16,13
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Please quote the Greek text you are discussing directly in your post if it is reasonably short - do not ask people to look it up. This is not a beginner's forum, competence in Greek is assumed.
Please quote the Greek text you are discussing directly in your post if it is reasonably short - do not ask people to look it up. This is not a beginner's forum, competence in Greek is assumed.
Re: Gender of EKEINOS in Joh 16,13
If you'll look closely at the preceding verses in the context (verses 7-11), you'll note the reference to ὁ παράκλητος is spoken of and referred to thereafter as ἐκεῖνος. It would appear that the noun παράκλητος governs the author's choice of the masculine pronoun.Peter Streitenberger wrote:Dear Friends of Greek,
in John 16,13 it reads: Ὅταν δὲ ἔλθῃ ἐκεῖνος, τὸ πνεῦμα τῆς ἀληθείας, ὁδηγήσει ὑμᾶς εἰς πᾶσαν τὴν ἀλήθειαν·
πνεῦμα is an Apposition to ἐκεῖνος, but why does the Gender (mask. - neuter) not agree ?
οὔτοι ἀπ’ ἀρχῆς πάντα θεοὶ θνητοῖς ὑπέδειξαν,
ἀλλὰ χρόνῳ ζητέοντες ἐφευρίσκουσιν ἄμεινον. (Xenophanes, Fragment 16)
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)
ἀλλὰ χρόνῳ ζητέοντες ἐφευρίσκουσιν ἄμεινον. (Xenophanes, Fragment 16)
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)
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Re: Gender of EKEINOS in Joh 16,13
Ok, I understand, Dr. Conrad. What do you think of this explantion: “Sometimes the demonstrative pronoun will agree with the natural gender rather than the grammatical gender. For example, the masculine pronoun EKEINOS is used in John 14,26 and 16,13-14 to refer to the neuter noun PNEUMA to emphasize the personality of the Holy Spirit” ( “Intermediate New Testament Greek”, Richard Young S. 78).
Thank you again for a clarification
Yours
Peter, Germany
Thank you again for a clarification
Yours
Peter, Germany
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Re: Gender of EKEINOS in Joh 16,13
In both cited cases, it seems clear that the antecedent to ἐκεῖνος is the masculine ὁ παράκλητος.
Stephen C. Carlson, Ph.D.
Melbourne, Australia
Melbourne, Australia
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Re: Gender of EKEINOS in Joh 16,13
ἐκεῖνος, as has been aptly explained already in this thread, is NOT referring to πνεῦμα in that verse. I realize that some interpreters want to take this as an instance of constructio ad sensum, but it isn't. It is clearly and definitely referring to the masculine noun παράκλητος in the context.Peter Streitenberger wrote:Ok, I understand, Dr. Conrad. What do you think of this explantion: “Sometimes the demonstrative pronoun will agree with the natural gender rather than the grammatical gender. For example, the masculine pronoun EKEINOS is used in John 14,26 and 16,13-14 to refer to the neuter noun PNEUMA to emphasize the personality of the Holy Spirit” ( “Intermediate New Testament Greek”, Richard Young S. 78).
Thank you again for a clarification
Yours
Peter, Germany
Jason A. Hare
The Hebrew Café
Tel Aviv, Israel
The Hebrew Café
Tel Aviv, Israel