θυ θς θε θν θω

[Roy Fredrick]

Perhaps this is a "dumb" question, but can you explain the usage and variation of θυ θς θε θν θω it looks like "υἱὸς τοῦ θεοῦ" should be "of the θεοῦ" and like 1Jn 4:12 it should be "the θεὸς"? or is it just because of the nominitive, dative genitive postioning? Col 3:16-17 θς θω
1Ti 3:16 καὶ ὁμολογουμένως μέγα ἐστὶν τὸ τῆς εὐσεβείας μυστήριον·Ὃς ἐφανερώθη ἐν σαρκί, ἐδικαιώθη ἐν πνεύματι, ὤφθη ἀγγέλοις, ἐκηρύχθη ἐν ἔθνεσιν, ἐπιστεύθη ἐν κόσμῳ, ἀνελήμφθη ἐν δόξῃ.
GNT looks like capatolized? οὗ Mark 14:32 Καὶ ἔρχονται εἰς χωρίον οὗ τὸ ὄνομα Γεθσημανί, καὶ λέγει τοῖς μαθηταῖς αὐτοῦ· Καθίσατε ὧδε ἕως προσεύξωμαι.
Mat 27:40 θε
Jas 1:1 1Ti 1:2 θυ
Mar 15:34 θς
Mat 27:46 θε
Joh 20:17 θν
1Ti 1:17 θω
Is it hos or theos
θν θς Joh 1:18 θεὸν οὐδεὶς ἑώρακεν πώποτε· μονογενὴς θεὸς ὁ ὢν εἰς τὸν κόλπον τοῦ πατρὸς ἐκεῖνος ἐξηγήσατο.
monogenēs theos Aleph B C L or monogenēs huios noun: nominative singular masculine
Joh 1:14 και ο λογος σαρξ εγενετο και εσκηνωσεν εν ημιν και εθεασαμεθα την δοξαν αυτου δοξαν ως μονογενους παρα πατρος πληρης χαριτος και αληθειας
or does the Greek express μονογενους παρα πατρος since/despite begotten from the father?

[cwconrad]

Perhaps this is a "dumb" question, but can you explain the usage and variation of θυ θς θε θν θω it looks like "υἱὸς τοῦ θεοῦ" should be "of the θεοῦ" and like 1Jn 4:12 it should be "the θεὸς"? or is it just because of the nominitive, dative genitive postioning? Col 3:16-17 θς θω

It's not altogether clear what you're asking. θυ θς θε θν θω are, I think, abbreviations seen in manuscripts for the different case-forms of the noun θεός: θυ = θεοῦ (genitive form), θς = θεός (nominative form), θε = θεέ (vocative form), θν = θεόν (accusative form) and θω = θεῷ (dative form). This is a matter of abbreviating very commonly recurring nouns by noting only the first and last characters of the word.

1Ti 3:16 καὶ ὁμολογουμένως μέγα ἐστὶν τὸ τῆς εὐσεβείας μυστήριον·Ὃς ἐφανερώθη ἐν σαρκί, ἐδικαιώθη ἐν πνεύματι, ὤφθη ἀγγέλοις, ἐκηρύχθη ἐν ἔθνεσιν, ἐπιστεύθη ἐν κόσμῳ, ἀνελήμφθη ἐν δόξῃ.
GNT looks like capatolized? οὗ Mark 14:32 Καὶ ἔρχονται εἰς χωρίον οὗ τὸ ὄνομα Γεθσημανί, καὶ λέγει τοῖς μαθηταῖς αὐτοῦ· Καθίσατε ὧδε ἕως προσεύξωμαι.

Different printed GNT texts use different conventions; some start any new sentence with an upper-case letter; others will use upper-case letters only for proper nouns. You cited 1 Ti 3:16 in a text using the first convention. In your citation of Mark 14.32 in a text that capitalizes the proper name Γεθσημανί. Then Καθίσατε is capitalized because it contains the text of the command indicated by λέγει. One might wish that all printed texts of the GNT used a consistent formula for upper and lower-case characters, but it's not the case.

Mat 27:40 θε
Jas 1:1 1Ti 1:2 θυ
Mar 15:34 θς
Mat 27:46 θε
Joh 20:17 θν
1Ti 1:17 θω

I'm not sure what GNT text you're reading these forms in, but they are the abbreviated forms I noted above.

Is it hos or theos

In 1Ti 3:16 that you cited above Ὃς = ὃς, with the omicron in upper case because it's starting a new sentence.

θν θς Joh 1:18 θεὸν οὐδεὶς ἑώρακεν πώποτε· μονογενὴς θεὸς ὁ ὢν εἰς τὸν κόλπον τοῦ πατρὸς ἐκεῖνος ἐξηγήσατο.
monogenēs theos Aleph B C L or monogenēs huios noun: nominative singular masculine

It's unclear what you're citing -- looks like a textual apparatus sowing manuscript variants. This is a notorious and much-disputed one.

Joh 1:14 και ο λογος σαρξ εγενετο και εσκηνωσεν εν ημιν και εθεασαμεθα την δοξαν αυτου δοξαν ως μονογενους παρα πατρος πληρης χαριτος και αληθειας
or does the Greek express μονογενους παρα πατρος since/despite begotten from the father?

Sorry; it isn't quite clear what you're asking.

It really does look like you're approaching the Greek text of the New Testament from the outside, i.e. with all sorts of reference works, and trying to figure out the Greek with the assistance of dictionaries, parsing guides, and translations. The question is: have you started ever to learn Greek from the inside -- working through a standard beginning Greek text?