Relative pronoun

[sethknorr]

I apologize if this question seems stupid.

In regards to 2 Peter 3:10
Ἥξει δὲ ἡμέρα Κυρίου ὡς κλέπτης, ἐν ᾗ οἱ οὐρανοὶ ῥοιζηδὸν παρελεύσονται, στοιχεῖα δὲ καυσούμενα λυθήσεται, καὶ γῆ καὶ τὰ ἐν αὐτῇ ἔργα εὑρεθήσεται.

Does οἱ οὐρανοὶ ῥοιζηδὸν παρελεύσονται in this verse refer back to ἡμέρα, based on the relative pronoun ᾗ?

Ie. Is this basically saying οἱ οὐρανοὶ ῥοιζηδὸν παρελεύσονται will occur on that day?

From what I have always been taught in Greek, the relative clause connects back to the antecedent. Is this ever not the case?

I ask because I saw an analysis of this verse that was contrary to this, and wanted to make sure my Greek grammar was not in error.


Thanks for your help!

Seth Knorr

[timothy_p_mcmahon]

The antecedent of ᾗ is ἡμέρα; ᾗ refers back to ἡμέρα. Since ἡμέρα denotes a period of time, I think it's safe to say that the action described by οἱ οὐρανοὶ ῥοιζηδὸν παρελεύσονται will occur during that time period.